the word 'pais' in greek is used to refer to jesus christ in the bible
this word is translated as 'son' while it also has a second meaning: 'slave'
so why would bible translators use only one meaning and not the other?
http://www.studylight.org/lex/grk/view.cgi?number=3816
2007-06-19 04:22:26 · 12 answers · asked by Antares 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
That link is from a pretty resourceful place. Why would they lie?
2007-06-19 04:28:58 · update #1
The Bible has been translated many times over from one dead language to the next. Even when something is translated from one language currently in use to another language, something is always lost. What always amuses me is that some sects still cling to the King James version with its thy's and thou's, and when their ministers pray, they continue in the same vein ("Thou knowest our needs . . .").
The New American Bible is probably the most accurate because it is translated directly from the original Aramic to modern English. You might consider the context in which a word is used when trying to discern the use of a word with multiple meanings.
2007-06-19 04:35:13 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it is perfectly translated. It is used to indicate the human character of Jesus, but also his God-like nature. Since Jesus was both man and God, the greek word fits in nicely. By ''son'' you mean "Son of God". The "slave" refers to Jesus's suffering and humiliation as a human on earth. The word "pais" means opposite things, but Jesus was between those to opposites. He links humans with God. I think the word "pais" is a beautiful description of Jesus.
2007-06-19 04:37:45 · answer #2 · answered by The Desert Bird 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
first of all consider the source. which greek are u talking about? and when the translators worked on this they considered the context of the writing, the meanings of both words and the y concluded the most logical meaning , also based on previous texts that referred to the same person or subject. so there may have been another scripture that helped them know the words proper meaning.
2007-06-19 04:27:09 · answer #3 · answered by spotlite 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When the TORA was ordered to be translated to english by King James, the "court" or upper society of the time used a language slightly different then that of the ordinary people. There were some miss translations. A prime example is: Thou shall not kill. It actually says "thou shalt not commit murder". so, as you can see, it has a very different meaning.
Hope this helps
2007-06-19 04:26:45 · answer #4 · answered by randy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both greek and hebrew had mulitple meanings for words but the meaning is found in the context of the sentence. Just like with Chinese, the language has the same word for different meanings but it is all in how you say it in how you find the true meaning.
2007-06-19 04:27:43 · answer #5 · answered by The 2 points guy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Absolutely there is missing meaning. Take for instance the word He!l. The true meaning of the word is grave for the word Sheol, but for centuries it has been translated as He!l. Why? It is much easier to control the masses when there is fear.
2007-06-19 04:27:59 · answer #6 · answered by Soul Shaper 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both meanings are correct when used in the bible. Jesus is the SON OF GOD and the Hebrews were not a free people.
2007-06-19 04:27:17 · answer #7 · answered by jamoca 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No.The King James has no errors whatsoever.And the word son is always used in a phrase and should not be yanked out of context[i.e.,son of man/son of God].
2007-06-19 07:35:28 · answer #8 · answered by Trish 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Good question -- there are tonnssssss of instances like this in the bible. Usually people who understand the bible and study it in its original form are not like the Christians you see here and R&S...
2007-06-19 04:28:42 · answer #9 · answered by Aishah 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am studying Greek and pais does not have two meanings.
2007-06-19 04:27:33 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋