The Watch Tower Society believes that evidence from translations made after 1385 are more reliable textual confirmations of the Tetragrammaton than are earlier Greek manuscripts. The appropriateness of the Tetragrammaton for the 237 "Jehovah" passages is derived ONLY from Hebrew translations dating after 1385. In contrast, the earliest evidence available for the Greek word 'Lord', referred to in the Kingdom Interlinear Translation's footnotes, was from reliable Greek manuscripts as early as 300 C.E. The earliest dates verify that 'Lord' was in ALL Greek MSS between 301 and 400 C.E.
Many of these verses are identified with Hebrew quotes where the Lord Jesus would be identified as worthy of receiving an equivalent form of address as Jehovah of the Hebrew scriptures. Also, other such verses assign the addressee with the unique attributes of Jehovah, making the Lord Jesus worthy of the same glory as Jehovah. So the translators of the NWT chose to use Jehovah rather than Lord in 237 selected references. Ten Hebrew versions dating from 1385 on are given more authority than Greek MSS from the 4th century which use the word 'Lord'.
2007-06-18 09:50:35
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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John 20:20 & 28 are not quoting the O.T. Why the translators of the KJV decided to use cap's. here I couldn't tell you.
But they don't belong.
It probably was an attempt by the translators to make the bible teach the trinity.
Lord in all cap's at John 20:20 & 28 is the same as adding the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost at 1 John 5:7.
Thanks again for showing how accurate the NWT is.
NJB:
20and, after saying this, he showed them his hands and his side. The disciples were filled with joy at seeing the Lord,
28Thomas replied, 'My Lord and my God!'
NASB:
20And when He had said this, He showed them both His hands and His side The disciples then rejoiced when they saw the Lord. 28Thomas answered and said to Him, "My Lord and my God!"
NKJV:
20 When He had said this, He showed them His hands and His side. Then the disciples were glad when they saw the Lord.
28 And Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my God!”
as to Thomas, his comments have to be taken in context.
NKJV:
John 20:17‘I am ascending to My Father and your Father, and to My God and your God.’”
If Jesus is the God of Thomas, Who is the God Jesus worships?
Why did John write his Gospel? To prove Jesus is God or to prove Jesus is the Son of God?
John 20:30 And truly Jesus did many other signs in the presence of His disciples, which are not written in this book; 31 but these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in His name.
John wrote the entire gospel to prove Jesus is the Son of God.
We can confirm this by reading Rev 1:6
6 and has made us kings and priests to His God and Father, to Him be glory and dominion forever and ever. Amen.
Jehovah is Jesus' God and Father.
The one Jesus called the only true God.
If you believe Jesus is more than an image, then you are being blinded by Satan.
2 Cor 4:4
4 whose minds the god of this age has blinded, who do not believe, lest the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine on them.
2007-06-18 17:14:38
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answer #2
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answered by TeeM 7
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The New World Translation references TWENTY-SEVEN OTHER TRANSLATIONS which restored the Tetragrammaton, all of which are entirely independent of the NWT Committee and none of which had any connection with Jehovah's Witnesses.
There is exactly ONE instance of restoration unique to New World Translation (at 1 Cor 7:17, but compare that verse with Rom 12:3 and 2 Cor 10:13).
(1 Corinthians 7:17) Only, as Jehovah has given each one a portion, let each one so walk as God has called him.
(Romans 12:3) Think so as to have a sound mind, each one as God has distributed to him a measure of faith
(2 Corinthians 10:13) According to the boundary of the territory that God apportioned to us by measure
Every other restoration of the Divine Name had agreement and support from these twenty-seven other translations.
Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/na/
2007-06-18 18:41:10
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answer #3
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answered by achtung_heiss 7
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As a former JW, I must insist that they believe in the infalliablity of their bible much the same way catholics hold onto the pope on all matters doctrinally. It is my own belief that a group of old guys thousands of miles has no power stronger than I do-to make waste and make haste. If you believe in the bible as the undisputed word of god, than bless and keep you, but as I live and die, I see nothing in it affecting everything outside of it. The power of goodness only comes from within, and so don't waste your time debating anyone whose core values are shaped by another's propaganda. Build your own heart. As for your question, who really cares??? It's wrong anyway, so it's like trying to find out why they left the other "L" out of the word "atoll" in this book I'm reading...Pointless.
2007-06-18 16:45:13
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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I've wondered that, too.
Restoration?? Wouldn't Jehovah have had to have been in the original in order to be "restored"? I'm not an expert, but I know that translations made 1300 years after Jesus shouldn't have priority over manuscripts that are much older, and in the original language.
2007-06-18 19:02:03
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answer #5
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answered by browneyedgirl 3
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Anna I think God is working with us...lol...That question is better than mine about John 20:23-28...Give me some time to answer...K
I have an answer: Jesus is God in the flesh come to earth to die for our sins.....Otherwise Jesus would have condemned Thomas for blasphemy...instead he blessed Thomas for recognizing him...do I get a star?
Anna...lots of thumbs down but o answers from you know who....
2007-06-18 16:38:37
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Can't all you Christians just get along?
2007-06-18 16:41:45
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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