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When the Almighty God is One, unique and peerless, and knows about His oneness, then why in the Holy Quran he uses the plural pronoun (We) for Himself?

The use of first person plural noun (We) is the sign of greatness and magnificence of the person (entity) who is speaking and this use is most appropriate and befitting to God. Arabs say that the reason for the use of first person plural noun is considered as proof of greatness that great people generally are not alone. The servants, attendants and other people are always around them to fulfill their needs. That is why they always used the pronoun We and the use of this word is a metaphor for greatness.

In this respect, whereverin the words of God plural noun is used it reminds us about His greatness and magnificence and we start thinking about those apparent and hidden powers of the universe, which are subordinate to Him. In this way our belief in Tauheed become stronger and our attention towards the sanctified self becomes more.

The Glorious Qur'an is the Word of God as revealed to His Prophet, Muhammad, peace be on him his progeny and companions


((WE)) is not the trinity as some might think?

2007-06-18 04:07:00 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

eldad i can produce for you many verses in the bible that says that

2007-06-18 04:13:38 · update #1

12 answers

I ever wondered about it
thanks for sharing

2007-06-18 04:12:59 · answer #1 · answered by marhama 6 · 5 0

Because there was more than one; The 'pluralis majestatis' (Royal We, as we calll it now) concept is a MODERN one and was not applied when the Quran was written; same thing goes for the Bible where the plural is used too. The concept of the Holy Trinity is a post-Jesus concept, made up at the Council of Nicaea in AD 325( much later than when the Bible was written); so IT'S NOT THE REASON WHY. Sumerian tablets speak of 'many' Annunaki who came down to Earth; only ONE of them was the 'creator' of the Adam though, His name was Enki and was the one who also saved mankind from the deluge that HIS half-brother Enlil sent to get rid of mankind. The Monotheistic vision came up as a means to unite the different Hebrew tribes that were captive in Babylon, and it's precisely in that period that the first Books of the Bible were written. The Bible has never been an original book; and it's not an 'inspired' book either; it's just a collection of ancient Sumerian stories speaking of Cosmogony and Creation (written much much earlier, arpund 6000 BC), re-adapted to the new Monotheistic asset. For instance: The Seven days count; it doesn't stem from the Bible, it stems from Sumerian texts instead: after splashing down on Earth, Enki and his 50 heroes, worked for 6 days, setting up an encampment, dividing the waters (rain waters from land waters), bulding up their new abodes, classifying plants, and living creautes, and finally, when all was done, Enki proclaimed the 7th day as the day of rest. The Deluge; the original story is Sumerian, the hero (who then became known as Noah) was Ziusudra; he was one of Enki's sons born to a 'human' mother; when Enlil decided to get rid of mankind, Enki (the Creator) decided to save his son and the rest of the living species. The 40 days fasting: that's the fasting period Enki commanded to the Master Scribe Endubsar and during which he should have written down his words. These are just a few instances, proving how both the Bible and the Koran are based on much more ancients texts writing the original true story. Wanna know more about those texts? Read the Enuma Elish and the Words of Lord Enki;) There has never been any God; there was just a far more advanced civilization that came down to Earth some 435.000 years ago. Oh, by the way, tha also explains the missing link;) Peace. P.S. 'Ali', you have a beautiful name, I love it. And, by virtue of your name and its meaning, I respect your view and Faith 100%. You have your opinion, I have mine, but that doesn't make us enemies.

2016-04-01 03:32:16 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Why I can’t believe in the royal we, idea to Genesis 1:26 and 3:22,

If Jehovah talked with the royal we or us, etc, why did He only do it only 4-5 times.

Why didn’t He or doesn’t He continue to do to so through out the bible.

Why didn’t He use the royal we at Gen. 1:29, 30 only 3 verses later, or Gen. 2:18, Gen. 3:11, 15
and through out the rest of the bible? Why at Isa. 6:8, does Jehovah say “Whom shall I send”?

Job 38:4-7 shows that the angels were existing at the creation of man, so Jehovah wasn’t alone and had many spirit creatures to talk to.

Instead, which sounds more real and truthful, that Jehovah was talking to someone who is His Master Worker, His Firstborn Son, His Faithful Witness, who is His image, His exact representation, OR He was talking to Himself. (Prov. 8:30; Heb. 1:3; Col 1:15)

Bible scholar Donald E. Gowan said “There is no support in the O[ld] T[estament] for most of the proposed explanations: the royal ‘we,’ the deliberative ‘we,’ the plural of fullness, or an indication of a plurality of persons in the Godhead.

Why does the word Elohim according to Strong’s Cyclopaedia, when it applies to Jehovah means Supreme God, not Gods? Even when this word is applied to Moses (Ex. 4:16 & 7:1) it doesn’t mean that there are 3 Moses, it doesn’t even mean there are 2 Moses.

(Side point when Jesus said if you see me you see the Father, it is because he is the image of God, the exact representation of his Father. When you see an image in a mirror you are seeing a representation, not the actual person. Col 1:15)

(Side point, According to my college dictionary, begotten means “to be born”, to be born means “brought into life or being” when was Jesus brought into life, when he came to life as a baby? No, as Jehovah’s Firstborn of creation Col. 1:15; Rev 3:14)


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2007-06-19 06:23:31 · answer #3 · answered by TeeM 7 · 0 0

Yes ofcourse.

2007-06-18 05:29:09 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 4 0

May Allah bless you and be pleased with you brother.
thanks for information.

2007-06-18 05:02:42 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 4 0

Well said-I agree.

2007-06-18 04:11:30 · answer #6 · answered by سيف الله بطل ‎جهاد‎ 6 · 4 0

I don't agree with this.

"((WE)) is not the trinity as some might think? "

"we" is the trinity. Scripture is clear on this.

2007-06-18 04:11:30 · answer #7 · answered by Machaira 5 · 1 4

We see.

Well, we think those claims are ridiculous without any evidence to back them up.

Also, we are far nicer than your god, who tortures nonbelievers.

2007-06-18 04:10:58 · answer #8 · answered by eldad9 6 · 0 6

I disagree.

2007-06-18 04:10:28 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 5

so why would God be proud and then tell us not to be?

2007-06-18 04:10:05 · answer #10 · answered by Hey, Ray 6 · 1 5

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