Why does the Bible not address abusive paedophilia whilst appearing to condemn consenting gay relationships?

Question

I ask the same of the Quran?

Please provide a scriptural quote.

Answer 1

The pedophilic Biblical verses are Numbers 31:17-18 and Numbers 31:35-40. Below, you will see DETAILED HISTORY on these SPECIFIC verses from the Jewish Talmud explaining the pedophilia that took place against the 3-year old slave girls under the direct command of Moses.

While Christians are not obligated to follow the laws of the Talmud in their social lives, but the historical FACTS that exist in the Talmud about the Biblical verses Numbers 31:17-18 and Numbers 31:35-40 below, and how the "BIBLE FOLLOWERS" during those days were mostly pedophiles who literally forced sex on 3-year old girls after Moses' supposed 'Divine' order is clear indication that the Bible condones pedophilia.

(Numbers 31:17-18) 17 Now kill all the boys. And kill every woman who has slept with a man, 18 but save for yourselves every girl who has never slept with a man.

therefore had ordered the Israelites to kill all women older than three years and a day, because they were "suitable for having sexual relations."



To understand how a culture behaves one must look at the culture on the level of their norms not the norms of today's society.

Pocahontas was 10-12 when she became involved with John Smith

Ganges Khan and his bride were both 9 when they wed

Marie Antoinette married at 14.

The age of consent in the USA was 10 hardly 100 years ago and 11 in the UK, Talmud allowing 3 year olds to get married! etc.

The age of sexual consent is still quite low in many places. In Japan, people can legally have sex at age 13, and in Spain they can legally have sex at age 12.

A 40-year-old man having sex with a 14-year-old woman may be a "pedophile" in the USA today, but not in China today (where the age of consent is 14), nor in the USA last century. Biology is a much better standard by which to determine these things in my view, not the arbitrariness of human culture.

In the USA last century, the age of consent was 10 years old. California was the first state to change the age of consent to 14, which it did in 1889. After California, other US states joined in and raised the age of consent too.

As for the reasons why we age of consent just seems to get higher and higher, Essentially, we need more education just to survive in today's society, and this takes much more time. This additional education we need to function in today's society seems to me to be the main cause of the increase in the age of consent in many 20th century societies. The Common Law age of consent was 10. The French penal code raised the age from 11 to 13 only a century ago. In England, it was only in 1929 (70 years ago) that the ancient Christian minimum age for the marriage of females, which was 12, was abandoned.

In the US (an example of a prominent western country, since the west had the greatest effect on the world in the last couple of centuries.) They considered a seven year old female competent on making decisions regarding sex, though it was raised later on (in 1886, after attempts to raise the age of consent, Delaware was the only state to retain the common law age of seven, while twenty five states set the minimum age at a mere ten.) In older times, children were not perceived in the same sense that we perceive them, but the perception was changed gradually, which is due to a great extent to industrialization, and of course sigmund freud and others came along with their theories and supported these changes in social thinking (the word adolescent itself was introduced as recently as 1904.)

Answer 2

Of course double standard hypocrisy is an expression which springs readily to mind.
Actually there are a few clerics who speak out against what they consider to be sinful. And most of us regard those that do to be biased, bigoted or at the very least indoctrinated
Unfortunately they , the clerics, are generally no different from ordinary folk. There are good and there are bad. Some only do what their superiors want, some find it a soft living and want it to remain that way, some are bad (evil) and don't want to attract attention to themselves. I believe many have guilty consciousnesses and genuinely feel unfit to make moral judgments/declarations.
And a few may be (like the average man) unconvinced as to what is actually right and what is wrong.
Morality is a contemporary concept and it takes pedantic organisations like established churches a little time to be in tune with public opinion: by which time opinion has again changed.
However, on the whole the ecclestiastics seem generally do what they consider to be best for themseves; their own church. They don't like scandal to affect them, so they often choose to ignore the issues which are topical amongst the public at large simply because they would look even more hypocritical if they were to pontificate about the very things of which they are guilty.

Answer 3

This is because at the time of writing Paedophilia was not as exposed as it is now, in fact only since the media age and all of the sensationalism that it has brought with it do we know more of what is going on behind people's closed doors.

remember that up until recently you wife and your child were your property to do with as you pleased. I think that it only became illegal to rape your wife in the last century and there were no social services etc to prosecute a case of incest.

these things even now happen mainly within the family behind closed doors the predatory Paedophile whilst frightening and highly publicised is a rare animal in comparison to the incestuous child abuser.

however, Homosexuality has always been more overt in some religions homosexuals are revered in others they are ostracised. I find it disturbing however that religions can be so judgmental and intolerant of homosexuals whilst (certainly in the case of the Catholic church) Protecting the Paedophiles within their ranks rather than outing them and getting the help that they need

Answer 4

The Quran:
1) does not permit for gay relationships, by reference to the civilization of Lut, which were gays.
2) does not permit forcible marriage. So, if a paedophilic wants to marry a girl below her age of maturity, he cannot. If a girl is forcibly given away in marriage before her age of maturity OR even after, she can consider the marriage dissolved.

The story which thousands of you manipulate about Hazrat Ayesha (R.A.) being married to the Prophet (P.B.U.H) because he felt attraction towards her (naozzubillah) is false. It is proven by the following facts:
(A) We all know that the residents of Mecca were finding any possible way to insult the Prophet (P.B.U.H). In fact, though he was earlier given the titles of the Sadiq (The Truthful) and the Ameen (The Trustworthy), the same people who gave him that title made fun of him saying he was a liar. They used to persecute Muslims, thus the whole matter is clear that they were bitterly against Islam. However they did not raise their voices against his marriage to Hazrat Ayesha (R.A.). How come, that they hated the Prophet (P.B.U.H) so much, they did not cry against this? This means that like today it is common for women to work in those days girls were married at young ages. This is well-structured because it is also here in my ancestory. Like my grandmother was married when she was 15, my mother was the last one to marry in her age, at the age of 24, while my sisters don't plan to marry for 2-3 years (they are almost 25) and I believe my marriage would be delayed uptil the age of 30, so it is but natural that marrige age was earlier then.
(B) I'm sure you're not satisfied. Another reason for this is that she was mature. Due to climatic and geographical variations, the maturity of a person varies. People in hotter places mature earlier than in colder places. I'm just a kid, but my sisters can testify I can take my own decision of marriage if I want to. Thus, Hazrat Ayesha (R.A.) was mature enough, to have been married to him. Some may say that 6 years is to young for such a decision to be taken. However, the thing is that neither the Prophet (P.B.U.H) nor Hazrat Ayesha (R.A.) took the decision of marriage, rather it was divine will that they be married. (I know, you don't believe in the divinity stuff but many of the marriages of the Prophet (P.B.U.H) were divine will, he himself expresses throguh his Sunnah by his actions that he vwere reluctant to marry those women. Otherwise, why would he mention his deceased wife Hazrat Khadija (R.A.) with love all the time in front of his wives? Why would he send slaughtered meat to Hazrat Khadija (R.A.)'s relatives? Why did he say that the time he spent Hazrat Khadija (R.A.), was better than any time of his life?) Moreover, the Nikah took place at the age of 6, she went to the live with the Prophet (P.B.U.H) at the age of nine and only once she was 12 or above, did the meaning of marriage be implemented. So, if I put myself there, I think it was pretty fair. I mean, I'm around 14 and can make a decision in my life. From Hazrat Ayesha (P.B.U.H)'s narrations, we can see she was treated like a child during the first several years of her life, he'd play with her and buy her toys. Would you do that if you are paedophilic?

***Banning Gay relationships:
We also (sent) Lut: He said to his people: "Do ye commit lewdness such as no people in creation (ever) committed before you? For ye practise your lusts on men in preference to women : ye are indeed a people transgressing beyond bounds." And his people gave no answer but this: they said, "Drive them out of your city: these are indeed men who want to be clean and pure!"

Answer 5

yes, it does;


Yes, pedophilia is wrong. Pedophilia is the the sexual actual act or sexual fantasy that an adult has with and/or regarding a child or children. Such acts are sinful. First of all, the sexual union is only properly had between a husband and wife. It is never to be had between anyone else. Therefore, pedophilia is a sin.

1 Cor. 6:9-10, "Or do you not know that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor homosexuals, 10 nor thieves, nor the covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers, shall inherit the kingdom of God."
Heb. 13:4, "Let marriage be held in honor among all, and let the marriage bed be undefiled; for fornicators and adulterers God will judge."
Clearly, this sin is forbidden by God since it violates the natural created order of sexual union between a husband and wife.

Answer 6

Oh, but it does, it does.

Whoever shall lead one of these little ones astray, better that he should have a millstone tied around his neck and be dropped in the sea.---Mark 10, Jesus

I'd say molesting a child would qualify.

Pedophilia is also addressed in the Laws of Moses, (there are 622, including the infamous injunction against homosexuality)

Answer 7

it was addressed in Mark 10:14 Jesus said "Suffer the little children unto me". This was an example to love and cherish children, to let them experience the love of God. Jesus showed us and them that children are precious gifts to be treasured . Sadly today, children are all to often neglected, abused

Answer 8

I think the Quran's position on paedophilia is pretty clear (Mohammed certainly enjoyed a nine year old wife)

Answer 9

Excuse me, but it does address pedophilia.

Any sex outside the bounds of marriage is considered sin. Period. It includes all sexual perversions. While the list may not outline each perversion individually, it is clear that sexual relations of any form other than between a husband and wife are illegal, according to the Law of Moses.

Answer 10

let it go already. no need to beitter and spiteful, unless you're alone. bitterly, bitterly alone. are you, scapegoat?

because any sexual deviants were stoned. the gays, the beastialiters.... and Jewish law required a girl be atleast 13 before she's even allowed to be betrothed. 12 and under is pedophilia. some things are just common sense.