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That would make more sense in the reading of Levitcus, but what about condemnation of heterosexual pederasty? were sexual relationships with underage girls considered quite acceptable in Bible times unlike today when we consider it an abusive crime?
Why is there no clear condemnation of either same-sex or different-sex pederasty in the Bible or Quran?

2007-06-18 01:30:59 · 11 answers · asked by CHEESUS GROYST 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Some of the answers here seem to be from people who are pushing an anti-gay agenda and who wish to make personal remarks about me rather than considering my serious question.

2007-06-18 01:52:06 · update #1

bloody_gothbob: yes perhaps I should have written paedophilia instead, I'll remember that next time.

2007-06-18 01:53:54 · update #2

11 answers

I learned a new word today. So, what are you saying, that it is wrong for a male to have sex with a boy but it is okay for a man to have sex with a man? It is both wrong. For one thing, homosexuals (no matter what the age) cannot be fruitful and multiply. It is unnatural. Two males or females for that matter cannot become one. A baby is a physical manifestation of a spiritual truth. The New Testament has several passages where it clearly states homosexuals will not enter Heaven. Yes, there are stories in the Bible of sex sin, and even by men of honor, but they are illustrated to show their fallibility. No great man of God ever committed a homosexual act, willingly. Just because there is not a mention of pederasty in the Bible does not mean it is okay! I would think homosexuality would encompass that. Geez.

2007-06-18 01:45:41 · answer #1 · answered by ? 4 · 1 3

The behaviors described, which were pretty widely practiced in the ancient world, bear almost no resemblance to modern committed same-sex couples, except perhaps for the plumbing.

There are also two stories that *do* bear some resemblance to modern same-sex couples--the one of Ruth and Naomi, and the one of David and Jonathan, neither of which were condemned. Ruth did end up getting married and having children, but then again, so did many characters in lesbian pulp novels from the 1920s to the 1970s.

2007-06-18 03:54:32 · answer #2 · answered by GreenEyedLilo 7 · 0 0

In the Bible, age is not a factor in determining a sex crime. Marriage was the determining factor. Regardless of age, if the sex happened between two unmarried people, it was a crime - either fornication or adultery - and strong condemned. This would of course include under-age sex, as you could not be married to a woman at least until after she had a regular monthly flow.

The Bible did permit marriage at a younger age then most state laws do today, as for most women their periods begin before the age of 18. Historians estimate that the average woman of the time normally started at about 15-16, a little older than the average today.. But the Bible required more than just a "flow" for marriage. The groom was required to be able to show that he could provide for the woman's needs (food, clothing, etc), have a home in which to live, and an source of income (employment, property, herds, etc).

In today's society, it normally requires a high school diploma minimum to be able to care for a wife and family. So to have a law that requires you reach the normal high school graduation before marriage is in keeping with the Bible guidelines.

As for the main question about homosexuality. Is the ban only on predatory homosexual relations? If you look at 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 you will find the answer.

9 Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexual abusers, nor those who practice homosexuality, 10 nor thieves, nor the covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers, will inherit the kingdom of God.

The scripture list BOTH those who are abusive (mal-ak-os' in the Greek) and those who just practice it as been excluded from the kingdom of God.

2007-06-18 01:50:34 · answer #3 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 1 3

Good point. I have no idea why this is not listed. Incest used to be perfectly acceptable then, too. So was polygamy, yet that's a "no-no" now.

I believe women were "women" at around 12-13, when they reached puberty. Strange how some things are acceptable now that wouldn't be acceptable then and vice-versa. No wonder people balk at the bible, it's full of inconsistencies and much of it is in conflict with what we believe today.

And why did the people above (who already responded with bible verses) NOT answer your question? Hello, people! Look up the meaning of pederasty if you don't understand what that means!!

2007-06-18 01:40:59 · answer #4 · answered by spike_is_my_evil_vampire 4 · 4 1

I'd like to approach the problem from a diferent angle.

"the natural use of the female"

We tend to make people the objects, or victims of lust. People are not things to be used. That concept should apply to victimizing in the form of rape, slavery, pedophilia, etc.

If a society is built on the family, and the "the natural use of the female" is fundamental to that family, is it surprising that no one questioned slavery, child labor, or many of the civil 'wrongs' that are not addressed in the Bible?

Homosexuality, in the context of producing new members of society is simply a waste of time, and will always be considered a vanity by family oriented society.

2007-06-18 02:25:50 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Heterosexual pederasty (but doesn't the word pederasty itself mean that it's about an old man and a young boy?) was acceptable until not very long ago. For instance, Samuel de Champlain, who founded the city of Québec, in 1608, married Hélène de Champlain when he was about forty years of age. However, she was twelve!

Y'know, in Bible times, you'll see it in the Old Testament, even incest was acceptable in certain conditions. So don't believe an ancient book to guide your life.

2007-06-18 01:39:08 · answer #6 · answered by bloody_gothbob 5 · 5 2

Perhaps they didn't have that problem back then.
Why are you so obsessed with this?
And I'm not saying the condemnation of the practice of homosexuality actually means the condemnation of same-sex pederasty. What I'm saying is that the condemnation of the practice of homosexuality INCLUDES the condemnation of same-sex pederasty.

2007-06-18 01:34:36 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

Leviticus 21:13

If a man practices homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman both men have commited a detestable sin.

Thats pretty clear condemnation.

2007-06-18 01:38:25 · answer #8 · answered by Allee_Rose17 3 · 3 3

Rom. 1:24-27: “God, in keeping with the desires of their hearts, gave them up to uncleanness, that their bodies might be dishonored among them . . . God gave them up to disgraceful sexual appetites, for both their females changed the natural use of themselves into one contrary to nature; and likewise even the males left the natural use of the female and became violently inflamed in their lust toward one another, males with males, working what is obscene and receiving in themselves the full recompense, which was due for their error.”

1 Tim. 1:9-11: “Law is promulgated, not for a righteous man, but for persons lawless and unruly, ungodly and sinners, . . . fornicators, men who lie with males, . . . and whatever other thing is in opposition to the healthful teaching according to the glorious good news of the happy God.” (Compare Leviticus 20:13.)

Jude 7: “Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities about them, after they . . . [had] gone out after flesh for unnatural use, are placed before us as a warning example by undergoing the judicial punishment of everlasting fire.” (The name Sodom has become the basis for the word “sodomy,” which usually designates a homosexual practice. Compare Genesis 19:4, 5, 24, 25.)

2007-06-18 01:38:21 · answer #9 · answered by sxanthop 4 · 2 4

in peter and roman 1
and paul mentioned it again elsewhere.
also paul mention cast out the evil doer out of your congreation and let satan have him.
and destroy him..if the fellow repent..(turn from doing sin again) (1 and 2 cor)
the man had sex with his father wife, i guess themother pass away..and he boast about it.
other wow about it..too..ect. because it was that sort of culture back then..like here again.
i can tell..you seem to be 'sexual centered.
that right there is an idolatry mind..maybe?
anyway..romans said about woman lay with woman..men withmen..peter said of this..IN HTE LAST DAYS..as well paul..said this in the LAST DAYS...it would take me hour or more..to find locate..ect..anyway, if you read the bible..or online bible.and type in..one word or phraise..you might..find what i/we talking about.
perversion..is in the bible..incest was outlaw in old testament..one it is bad DNA mixing..that is logical.
maybe it wasn't early on?? hard to say..we were NOT there.
another word to look up on online bible is abominnation..in kjv probably..
anyway, it is vile to have sex with a butt.
butt is an exit hole..not an enterance..like the woman.

2007-06-18 01:46:17 · answer #10 · answered by blessedrobert 5 · 1 4

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