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2007-06-18 00:55:47 · 9 answers · asked by CHEESUS GROYST 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

or were children merely considered chattels in Biblical times, and when the Quran was composed.

2007-06-18 00:57:20 · update #1

I am referring to adults having sexual relations with children of either sex.

2007-06-18 01:03:28 · update #2

carolinagirl053: So you are saying that wherever homosexuality appears to be condemned it is really same-sex pederasty that is being condemned in these passages...that would make a lot more sense, but what about heterosexual pederasty, was that considered quite acceptable then?

2007-06-18 01:16:25 · update #3

9 answers

It's just wrong it is in the Quar'an the Torah but was in the Bible before the Romans changed it. It's WRONG...why would you have a sexual relationship with a child its disgusting. I mean of course before this there were people selling women of all ages to old nasty men to be their wives.

hope dis helps = P

2007-06-18 01:05:23 · answer #1 · answered by Shutter Speed Is All You Need 5 · 1 1

Remember that in ancient times, conditions were far different. People were considered adult much earlier in life, typically as soon as they were into puberty. For one thing, with the death rate so high, the culture needed to use strategies to get the birth rate as high as possible. So what we consider to be still a child they might consider an adult.

But even so, we would expect to see some prohibition of sex with real children if it was an issue. It is quite possible that it was either really not done (they had all those pubescent girls, did not need the pre-pubescent ones) or was so very taboo it was not even mentioned to say "thou shalt not."

Some people probably still buy the "don't put ideas in their heads" theory of moral teaching. I think it was a great deal more common in the old days, when the idea was far more easily controlled. Today the tabloid newspapers, if nothing else, will guarantee every bizarre perversion is at least mentioned enough for everyone to have heard of it by the time they are old enough to care.

2007-06-18 01:03:42 · answer #2 · answered by auntb93 7 · 1 0

Sexual expression between adults and adolescents is not well studied and since the 1990s has been often conflated with pedophilia. Such relationships raise issues of morality and functionality, agency for the youth, and parental authority. They may also raise issues of legality in those cases where the minor is below the age of consent. Homosexual pederasty have been deemed beneficial by groups such as ancient philosophers, Japanese samurai, and modern writers such as Oscar Wilde. In many societies, it was justified on the grounds that the boy needed sexual relations with a man in order to become a man himself and that man-boy relations were superior to relations with a woman, in line with the highly mysogynistic cultures in which they were openly practiced. Today, most commentators disapprove of them and consider that they have a negative effect on the psychological development of the youth. A study countering this position, authored by Bruce Rind and others, was published by the American Psychological Association in 1998. See Historical pederastic relationships and Pederasty in the modern world.

Unless your definition of pederasty is different than this, all sexual relations except those between man and woman in the bonds of marriage are against God's plan for mankind. Since you're a regular on Yahoo Answers, I'm sure you already know the scripture references regarding sexual behavior in the Bible.

2007-06-18 01:03:32 · answer #3 · answered by Graham 5 · 0 0

I would imagine it is condemned wherever practicing homosexuality is condemned.

Leviticus 18:22; Romans 1:26-27; 1 Corinthians 6: 9-10.

1 Cor. talks about being sexually immoral, and I would imagine pederasty is classified as sexual immorality, so this verse might fit the bill the best.

2007-06-18 01:11:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

You would find it strange in your times, but children were seen as young adults even though they didn't have the maturity. The term, "children are to be seen and not heard" is very much a true statement and parenting philosophy as little as a hundred years ago.
Hard to beleive, hunh?
Romans and Greeks saw children equal to cattle. So they were bought, sold, traded as much as cattle.
Pederasty (the anal sex of especially boys) was not a human travesty because children were not seen as human (exactly like fetuses are today).

I hope this helps. I wish I could remember my sources, you would have enjoyed reading the history book

2007-06-18 01:03:48 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Pederasty is a pretty broad word. You need to narrow down what you are talking about.
Pederasty normally refers to male/male relationship (with an age factor). Is this what you are referring to or what?

2007-06-18 01:00:47 · answer #6 · answered by ~~∞§arah T∞©~~ 6 · 1 0

You are not going to find ALL the answers in either...both were written AFTER the dinosaurs. And, there are some things that we just automatically KNOW is wrong, and we don't need a book to tell us that. (I'm not saying anything against either, I'm Catholic. I'm just saying, there are some "sins" that we all know is wrong, everyone on the planet, and we all learned from different sources.) Seriously, do you people need a Bible to convince you this is wrong ? or is someone just trying to justify it ?

2007-06-18 00:59:41 · answer #7 · answered by Scorpius59 7 · 0 2

it comes under the rules against fornication and adultery..
jesus also commented that anyone who destroys the innocence of a child should be put to death...he said a stone should be tied around their neck, and they should be cast into the sea ( to drown)

2007-06-18 01:33:24 · answer #8 · answered by Marianne T 3 · 0 0

Quite simple wherever the revelations talk about rape/ fornication this applies to all ages.

2007-06-18 01:26:10 · answer #9 · answered by By Any Means Necessary 5 · 0 1

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