in the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was a God or in the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the word was God.......
2007-06-15 18:19:46 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
so when Jesus declares in the new testament that he is the Word then is he saying that he is god
2007-06-15 18:35:31 · update #1
what are your thoughts on this
2007-06-15 18:36:24 · update #2
John 1,14 and the Word was made flesh and dwelt among us full of grace and truth....
2007-06-15 19:18:50 · update #3
so if the Word is God and Jesus is the Word then when jesus was crucified and Jesus said Father forgive them they know not what they do ...then would not Jesus be asking hisself to forgive those who were crucifying him...
2007-06-15 19:23:18 · update #4
Forgive me lord for asking such a question to those and myself who are incapable of understanding you thoughts, actions ,or abilities to be as you please....wwwstat
2007-06-15 19:25:06 · update #5
If you read it in Greek the third part in question reads "God was the Word". (ke o theos en o logos).
An understanding of the Greek word logos which is translated to mean word in English is also important. Logos is not just some word, or any word, it is the word. It is understood to have a deeper meaning than the translation "word" in English.
God is the Logos and the Logos is God.
2007-06-15 21:40:14 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
This question arises out of the Greek of John 1:1. Basically the Greek states--In beginning the God and word with the God and Word was God. In that the writer places a "the" before God in the first two instances some feel that the lack of "the" before the last use of God indicates that the writer did not consider the Word to be equal to God. That idea is wrong for two reasons:
1.) By using "the" with the first two instances of God the writer is holding to the Jewish idea of only One God thus "The God". But in the second instance, by withholding the third use of "the" the writer introduces the idea of another person in the Godhead. He would then go on and explain his point in the following 17 verses.
2) It has been shown in several articles dealing with this verse that Greek writers would often drop the third, fourth, etc use of the word "the" in cases such as John 1:1. Thus we might expect to see written "the bouncing, the big, the red, the beach ball" we find "the bouncing, the big, red beach ball". Greek is a language that can be very specific and the repetative use of the article "the" would become boring reading and so they dropped it the first two nouns. The JWs who translate this verse as "was a God" do not translate correctly.
2007-06-16 02:12:36 · answer #2 · answered by John H 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The 'word' can no more be a God than a yell can be a person. A word, like a yell, is an expression and, as such, is the result of an expresser.
The 'word' was the first 'expression' or act of Godness, or it could be considered the impetous without which God could not be. In other words, without the Word, there could be no God for everythign comes after the Word, which is easy enough to know if you think about it.
2007-06-16 01:27:40 · answer #3 · answered by Khnopff71 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The correct verse is In the beginnig was the Word,and the Word was with God and the Word was God. John 1:1
2007-06-16 01:22:49 · answer #4 · answered by tebone0315 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
word WAS god.
jw's added in the "a" to go along with their belief that there is no trinity. just as they added (they say added BACK - meaning it was removed) the word jehovah hundreds of times into their bibles.
i dont know about you, or anyone else, but i know how i feel, and if god let the word get taken out of the bible, i trust he had a reason and its greater than any reason i could give. and i also trust that if he wanted it in there, it would be in every bible published to date.
i respect jws, they lead a difficult faith and you can get discommunicated very easily. i dont believe in that. god gave you family, taught you family is important, told you to love, yet a religion is saying that while you have this sin above your head, youre not as good as me -- forgetting that everyone sins and NO sin is greater than another. im on the same chopping block as a serial murder, man.
what do you believe?
eta: absolutely. he was not saying he was god the father, but god the son. that is another thing jw's dont believe... the trinity. they believe jesus was a perfect human, but separate from god. i do not believe that.
you can get jws to agree to a certain point, would god lie? no. so when he said jesus was perfect, he wasnt lying? no. is lying a sin? yes. so if jesus claimed to be god, taught about hell in a parable, do you believe he is part of god/do you believe in hell??
thats where it gets hairy.
the best way its been described to me is this: jesus, god and the holy spirit are three forms of one being. as steam, ice, and water are three forms of h2o. only quite more complicated, im sure. jesus would not claim to be god the father. god the father is still a father-figure to jesus, god the son. god the father is to be put ahead, no other gods before him. jesus is not before him, the holy spirit is not before him, but they are part of him.
this of course requires reading the ENTIRE bible, not just jotting down some scriptures, because anyone can make anything they want out of scripture... its sad but true. if your intentions are to learn, read. you will learn best that way.
2007-06-16 01:26:09 · answer #5 · answered by stella 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
the version that is correct is The Word was with God and the word was God. The first one has a god- there is only one true living God- so the first one is misquoted big time- there is huge difference with that letter a put before God.
2007-06-16 01:25:40 · answer #6 · answered by AdoreHim 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'm too tired to dig out my concordance but I'll guess the second is correct.
2007-06-16 01:24:09 · answer #7 · answered by luggage3000 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Was God...no a
2007-06-16 01:25:01 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋