Fact. The Bible doesn't mention homosexuality. The sins of Sodom and Gomorrah were laziness and idol worship and cruelty, and sex with animals. It clearly states that there were people of all ages in those cities, now tell me, if they were all homosexual, then why so many, as they wouldn't have sex with the opposite sex, this false teaching just doesn't make sense. The Hebrew word "to know" was used over 900 times in the old testament, but only about 30 times it means sex. This interpretation that the men of Sodom wanted to rape the angels is wrong, they wanted to beat and kill them. Look at the original Hebrew words, then Paul's Greek words, people. And I get thumbs down from people who either haven't read it or studied it on their own. King James and others falsely identified their sins with "homosexuality". King James is one of the biggest villains in Christianity, twisting the words to fit his agenda, that is blasphemy. Prove me wrong. Again, look at the Greek and Hebrew words, the man laying with man thing is a mistranslation, in Romans, Paul was talking about the practice of buying sexual favors from young boys with gifts, which the ancient Geeks, Romans and other cultures did. Its funny how people don't understand the words. The "abomination" was placing sexual desires (any sexual desires) over God. In essence, sex was their idol. That was the sin, not homosexuality.
2007-06-15 04:54:12
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Regarding Lot's offering of his daughters:
Instead of assuming that his motives were bad, why not consider some possibilities? First of all, Lot may well have acted in faith. How so? No doubt Lot was aware of how Jehovah had protected Sarah, the wife of Abraham, Lot’s uncle. Recall that because Sarah was very beautiful, Abraham had asked her to identify him as her brother, lest others kill him in order to take her. Subsequently, Sarah was taken to the household of Pharaoh. Jehovah, however, intervened, preventing Pharaoh from violating Sarah. (Genesis 12:11-20) It is possible that Lot had faith that his daughters could be similarly protected. Significantly, Jehovah through his angels did intervene, and the young women were kept safe.
Consider another possibility. Lot may also have been trying to shock or confuse the men. He may have believed that his daughters would not be desired by the crowd because of the homosexual lust of the Sodomites. (Jude 7) In addition, the young women were engaged to men of the city, so relatives, friends, or business associates of his prospective sons-in-law might well have been in the crowd. (Genesis 19:14) Lot may have hoped that by reason of such ties, some men in that mob would speak up in defense of his daughters. A mob thus divided would not be nearly so dangerous.
Whatever Lot’s reasoning and motives, we can be sure of this: Since Jehovah always does what is right, he must have had good reason to view Lot as a “righteous man.” And judging from the actions of the crazed mob of Sodomites, can there be any doubt that Jehovah was fully justified in executing judgment upon the inhabitants of that wicked city?—Genesis 19:23-25.
2007-06-15 05:13:59
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answer #2
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answered by jeffaroooskie 1
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Below are the verses you are questioning.
4) But before they lay down, the men of the city, even the men of Sodom, compassed the house round, both old and young, all the people from every quarter:
5) And they called unto Lot, and said unto him, Where are the men which came in to thee this night? bring them out unto us, that we may know them.
Just as it is now - there were certain terms in biblical times that meant different things. In the Bible, when it speaks of "knowing" someone, it means to have sexual relations with them. Why would a city have all these men around a house trying to get to know or befriend 2 visiting men? And why wait until night?
If you understand the terminology of the time, then you understand that they wanted to have sex with the 2 visitors. (Acts of evil and sin usually take place in the dark where there is no light - perhaps that's why Jesus says He is the Light?) Anyway, men having sex with men is a homosexual act. God said that this is a sin. Earlier in the chapter God says that because of all the many sins of the towns, he would judge them and that's why he destroyed the towns.
2007-06-15 05:17:47
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answer #3
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answered by Krusher_man 2
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However, the men of Sodoma were bad and great pecadores against Mr. Gênesis 13:13 The men of Sodoma were great pecadores ahead of God and them they committed all type of sexual perversions and this was the main reason so that God judged them causing the destruction of the cities Sodoma and Gomorra We do not have to support the attitude of the behavior of the people who adopt such sexual procedure, more we must show the love of God for them and that in Christ we will only have our cancelled sins and the perpetual life with Christ. Because the wage of the sin is the death, but dom gratuitous of God is the perpetual life in Christ Jesus our Senhor.Romanos 6:23 Abraços of the Gadita Brazil
2007-06-15 05:34:48
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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The question of why God destroyed Sodom and Gamorrah is a hotly debated one. Some people feel it is because of sexual inpropriaty. Some feel that it was because of the way the men in the city wanted to treat the angels.
In my opinion, I can see why the homosexual response comes about. The verses say that the angels were male and that the men of the city wanted to "know" them. In biblical times, "Knowing" meant having sex with. So that's, why even I sometimes think that.
There were rules by which people were treated as guests. Some people think that the people of S/G were defying those rules, which is why they were destroyed.
2007-06-15 05:30:42
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answer #5
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answered by josephwiess 3
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i think it was more that they were sex fiends, and dirty people. Fornication with animals was a big no-no back then, it was in the original covenant after Noah's ark. The people were doing all sorts of naughty things, and plus they were disrespectful to god. The word "sodomy" came from Sodom not because of homosexuality, but for the types of acts that were done between people of all sexes. They were just doing naughty things, and god was upset, it was more than just a bunch of gay guys.
2007-06-15 04:56:17
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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The New Testament comments on Sodom and Gomorrah.
In the same way, Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities around them committed sexual immorality and practiced perversions, just as they did, and serve as an example by undergoing the punishment of eternal fire.
Jude 1:7
Somewhat like the perverted angels before them, the Sodomites in the same way as these indulged in gross immorality and went after strange flesh. They too perverted God’s intended design for them by soliciting sexual favors from His holy messengers. Gross immorality translates a compound word (ekporneuō), which suggests that their homosexual behavior and attempted fornication was especially deviant from the God-ordained design for human sexuality (cf. Lev. 18:22; 20:13; Rom. 1:26-27; 1 Cor. 6:9; 1 Tim. 1:9-10). That they went after strange flesh indicates that, like the apostate angels, the men of Sodom pursued creatures (angels) outside of what was proper for them.
and if He reduced the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah to ashes and condemned them to ruin, making them an example to those who were going to be ungodly; and if He rescued righteous Lot, distressed by the unrestrained behavior of the immoral (for as he lived among them, that righteous man tormented himself day by day with the lawless deeds he saw and heard)
2 Peter 2:6-9
Peter, then, is pointing out that Lot was righteous in heart, as is clear from the fact that he was oppressed by the sensual conduct of unprincipled men. His abhorrence for the sin of those around him was a sure indicator that he was a believer (cf. Pss. 97:10; 119:7, 67-69, 77, 101, 106, 121, 123; Prov. 8:13; Rom. 12:9). At times, Lot might have been materialistic and morally weak, but he did not want any part of the sensual conduct that characterized Sodom’s unprincipled culture. The term sensual (aselgeia) means “outrageous behavior,” while unprincipled (athesmos) denotes actions that are “unrestrained,” and “without lawful standards”—violating both the conviction of conscience and the commandment of God. The blatant immorality of his fellow citizens greatly oppressed Lot; the Greek word (kataponeō) conveys the idea of exhausting someone by wearing him down and deeply troubling his soul.
2007-06-15 05:30:56
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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the word Sodomy is derived from the city of sodom that was destroyed due to pervarse sexual pleasures and gambling it was like a biblical las vegas. Sodomy of course means butt sex, and can either be done between 2 men or a man and a women either way its considered taboo.
Eddit
Jimithy the bible clearly states that when a man lays with another man it is an abominaton to god, do i know the veruse that says it no, but i have read it before in the new king james version.
2007-06-15 04:54:48
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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This is why they were destroyed...
Ezekiel 16: 48-50 (Contemporary English Version)
As surely as I am the living LORD God, the people of Sodom and its nearby villages were never as sinful as you. They were arrogant and spoiled; they had everything they needed and still refused to help the poor and needy. They thought they were better than everyone else, and they did things I hate. And so I destroyed them.
edit: You are correct. It was not just for being gay. People with an agenda tell only the part of the story that promotes their agenda.
2007-06-15 04:54:37
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answer #9
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answered by Mr. E 7
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Genesis 19:5 is blatent that the men of Sodom were homosexuals: 5 And they called to Lot and said to him, “Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us that we may know them carnally.” (NKJV) Interestingly, the JPS Hebrew Tanakh (English translation) also uses the word "know" here. The implication is undeniable that the men were gay.
I agree with other answerers who state this wasn't the ONLY sin these people committed. However, it's the only sin that God, through Moses, chose to document as an important event.
EDIT: "Rave," if you were gay and someone offered you his daughter instead of the man you lusted after, which would you choose? You're missing the point -- Lot offered what he KNEW the men wouldn't take. He was stalling for time.
"Jimithy," I could easily prove you wrong, but chances are you wouldn't read it because you've already made up your mind.
2007-06-15 04:57:23
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answer #10
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answered by Suzanne: YPA 7
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