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31 answers

First, you are assuming that the "common ancestor" of Africans and Europeans is black. Even in modern times both populations have a variance due to the environmental pressures that have effected the way that this variance expresses itself over generations of reproduction in either environment. You also have the effects of sun exposure on melonin that leads Caucasian people to become darker, and to have lower folic acid rates that leads to lower reproductive sucess when habituating in equatorial areas (without the proper use of supplements) and African people become lighter and without adequate vitamin d supplies would become increasingly ill and experience a loss of reproductive sucess if habituating in non-equatorial areas. In modern times this has been overcome through the use of supplements that allow either to be healthy and reproductive no matter where they habituate, but in ancient times the variance would have been selected upon to create a reproductive descrepancy due to the colour of one's skin that would have gradually effected the overall population to be the "best-fit" within each environment, although variance would still persist as a safeguard for future environmentl changes. Natural selection is an amazing mechanism. So to try and stich some kind of answer out of our elaborate history, first of all we have to aknowledge that some African people (even in equatorial regions) are actually quite light in colouration. Second we have to accept that there were multiple migrations into Europe from Africa (Homo-erectus who became the Archaic Homo Sapien species in Europe, namely Neanderthal and Homo Sapien Sapien who made the migration much later) The problem with this is that we still as of yet are not completely clear if homo sapien sapien wiped out, or breeded out neandertal, both of which would result in widely different answers to your question. If homo sapien was able to create reproductively capable offspring with neandertal, then all the adaptations that neandertal had achieved over the previous million years could have been added to the variance of homo sapien sapien including the lighter skin tones that would have been aquired by neandertal. If there was a whole sale replacement of species at this time, however, then homo sapien would have had to start from scratch, so to speak, in having natural selection start to choose from the variance within this migratory population to choose for lighter skin tones. Some sites in Israel do show co-habitation of these two species and their are a speckling of archaeological findings throughout Europe that reveal skelatal remains that appear to be "hybrids" of the two species, but it is not known if such hybrids would have been reproductively successful? They may have been sterile for all that we know, much as the mule (horse/donkey) is sterile. Anyways, I have lived much of my life in Kenya, and a small portion of people there are allready remarkably light in their colouration and I do not believe that it would take that long for natural selection to act such that they would become drastically lighter in colouration quickly given a circumstance where an environmental pressure created a situation whereby the darker segment of the population was made less reproductively successful, such as the darker skinned individuals would have been when homo sapien sapien migrated into Europe tens of thousands of years ago. They would have had virtually no vitamin d, especially during the long european winters, and would have become exceedingly ill without all the vegetable/fruit imports that we have today and the vitamin d which is added to milk. Seeing as a it also takes 9 months to make it from conception to delivery no darker skinned woman would have been able to avoid a very difficult pregnancy under those conditions and I'm sure that this reproductive discrepancy between the light and dark skinned variance would have exhibited itself quickly upon the population. Really there is no factual answer to your question as skin does not preserve as well as bones so we (archaeologists) truly do not know the answer to your question, but I hope that my evolutionary tirade has at least shed some light on the issues?

2007-06-14 12:38:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

According to the scientists it was thousands and thousands of years ago. They have even proved that all people are descended from the original people that lived in what is now known as Ethiopia in central Africa. So therefore we are all from what people call the blacks, but for them we wouldnt exist and therefore should not be predjudiced. Plus they are not black, I have never seen a black person in my life only darked skinned people. Why do whites go out and sunbathe to go darker and then call coloured people. I am English white and have a afro/american gf and we dont see the difference in colour. But anyway I am diversing from your question. I would think millions of years.

2016-05-20 22:19:44 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

You'll really need to expand on your question to get a serious answer. Are you asking how many generations of racial intermixing, and at what percentage of each race, would it take for a black and white population to become all white? Because really, that's all you can address with this subject.

2007-06-14 12:07:12 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

Ive heard about 10,000 years on a program on national geographic.

PS. Whew, didn't realize that there's so many people that believe they where always white, and that a white man originated in Europe separate from Africa. Very interesting. Must be a theory I hadn't yet heard of.

2007-06-14 12:03:07 · answer #4 · answered by Army Retired Guy 5 · 2 1

You're going to get railroaded for this question, in case you hadn't already figured it out.
I'm assuming you mean this from an evolutionary standpoint. Probably a few hundred generations at the least. Which would be in the neighborhood of let's say 10,000 years.

2007-06-14 12:08:05 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Figure that the last time they did it, it took about 50,000 years. As everyone in Europe is descended from black africans.

2007-06-14 12:46:17 · answer #6 · answered by squeezie_1999 7 · 1 0

They started copying Michael Jackson.

2007-06-14 15:03:22 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Not really long, when migrant populations began to wear thick winter clothings it has taken less than 100 generations (about 2000 years)...

2007-06-14 12:05:50 · answer #8 · answered by Jedi squirrels 5 · 0 0

I think black in America and black in Europe are different in term of the way they think and they way they look at what happened in the past if that is what you mean. They are people and it is just nonsence when you asked : "How long it is going to take for for them to become white?", just ridiculous to me. Come on! they are people, God's creations.....

2007-06-14 12:48:00 · answer #9 · answered by oooo 1 · 0 2

Ask Michael Jackson

2007-06-14 12:40:14 · answer #10 · answered by DEZ 2 · 3 3

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