I think we can all agree, at a bare minimum, that discrimination in the workplace on the basis of gender is wrong. (If you don't, please skip this question!)
My understanding of the issue, though, is that the case was brought after the statute of limitations (as commonly interpreted) expired, and that the majority said Congress could change the law and correct any perceived error. They didn't rule against the concept of "equal pay," just on the statute as written by Congress.
Were they right to decide as they did? Why or why not?
Would you have done the same? Why or why not?
Is my characterization accurate, and complete?
Has any move been made in Congress yet to address this?
Thanks!
2007-06-13
03:16:43
·
5 answers
·
asked by
American citizen and taxpayer
7
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics