2007-06-12 14:03:37 · 8 answers · asked by MrsOcultyThomas 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It has to be understood in the context of the time and place. The long hair I don't know about, must've been a cleanliness thing, but the "men laying with men" passages are not an admonishment against loving sexual relationships between people of the same sex but instead against sex as a form of domination and control. Besides, these passages are part of the Holiness Code which is not binding to modern day Christians (or anyone else for that matter).
2007-06-12 14:05:58 · answer #1 · answered by ZER0 C00L ••AM••VT•• 7 · 5⤊ 2⤋
Paul was supposedly born and raised in the city of Tarsus, a region in SE Asia-Minor (now called Turkey) where Mithras was well known. Biblical scholars are now saying that Paul, the alleged author of 13 out of the 27 (maybe more) books of the New Testament, may have been influenced in his writings by this strong religion of Mithraism. We can see a profound kinship between Mithraism and Christianity.
In-as-much as Mithraism was so popular in Rome, it is no wonder why the pagan Emperor Constantine, who believed in the sun god, Mithras, designated a certain day of the week to him, Sunday, which means, “the day of the sun.”
The original "Christian" faith became a mix of pagan, Mithramic, Jeudeo/Christian teaching. This lead to the confusing mix of theology that we have today within the "Christian" community. This apostacy from the original simple and plain teachings of Christ was accelerated by the persecutions and killings of any who tried to support the "old" ways. Maybe this solves the mystery of the “ungodly” marriage between Mithraism and the cult of Jesus. As it turns out, it was all for political convenience! But, Christians think they are better than that today. In short: The "Christianity" they have today has almost no relationship, in doctrine or in way of life, to the "the original teachings of Jesus."
2007-06-12 21:09:48 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Zero Cool is right, the Greek words that Paul uses refer to either male prostitution which usually involved young boys, and temple prostitutes. Paul was living in a particular cultural context, just like we are, and was shaped by that. Scripture needs to be read and understood within its context and interpreted in light of that.
2007-06-12 21:14:25 · answer #3 · answered by keri gee 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Paul wasn't the only one that meantioned homosexuality.
The subject came up about hair length (both men's and women's,) so he had to mention it, I guess. (Signs of the times.)
2007-06-12 21:21:56 · answer #4 · answered by Blank 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Many biblical scholars agree that Paul was undoubtedly gay.
Love and blessings Don
2007-06-12 21:34:42 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
He was making a point about men being men, hippie
2007-06-12 21:08:52 · answer #6 · answered by Creepy 3 · 3⤊ 2⤋
Because those were the things that really, really worried him...you know, the big issues. ;0)
2007-06-12 21:05:51 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 6⤊ 1⤋
It was what God wanted written.
2007-06-12 21:07:12 · answer #8 · answered by heavnbound 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋