Deu 23:2 A bastard shall not enter into the congregation of the LORD; even to his tenth generation shall he not enter into the congregation of the LORD.
Zac 9:6 And a bastard shall dwell in Ashdod, and I will cut off the pride of the Philistines.
Heb 12:8 But if ye be without chastisement, whereof all are partakers, then are ye bastards, and not sons.
If you still didn't see anything wrong with that then I shall tell you:
The word "bastard" was used in all of these verses, the guy lost his cool because other people didn't listen to him... I ain't letting my sister come anywhere near the Bible because she might learn bad language...
2007-06-12 00:37:29 · 18 answers · asked by K Assiri 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
haha looks like he did
2007-06-12 00:40:30 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
Since a "bastard shall not enter a congregation of the Lord" I guess it WAS a bad word back then too - maybe just not a swear word. Either way, it counts me out - I'm a bastard, so I guess I'd better keep away from the congregations too - I wouldn't want to defile the Lord's holy house, now would I?
2007-06-12 08:20:57 · answer #2 · answered by MJF 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Like many of the "curse words", when used it is was intended, to mean a child born out of wedlock, it is not a curse word.
Plus you are aware that each of the verse you quoted was written by a different person, Moses the first, Zachariah the second, and one of the apostles for the third. So there was no one "guy who lost his cool". Nor is he repeating himself as it is three different author writting about different subjects.
The first addresses the issue that, since all priest are required to be descendants from Aaron, no child whose parentage is unknown can serve as a priest. The second is a prophecy that the current line of Philistine kings would end, and someone who was not of the king's lineage would take the throne. The last says that just a child knows that he is accepted as a legitimate son if his father cares for him, so we know that we are God's children when he cares for us.
There is nothing obscene or objectionable about any of those three teachings.
2007-06-12 07:54:58 · answer #3 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There were literally hundreds of writers whose work appears in the bible. Even the writings attributed to just one person, the Gospels of Luke, John, and the Epistles of Peter (widely believed to be illiterate) seem to have multiple authors. For a discussion of this see Bruce M. Metzger and Bart Erhman's "Text of the New Testament." Sorta a funny concept in your question though.
2007-06-12 07:46:15 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No he did not. The term "bastard" is used for children born out of wedlock .... and the Bible was not written by 1 person.
2007-06-12 07:45:15 · answer #5 · answered by Sahara H 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
some times it would be freackey and stressing work to study all every thing round world.. from bebical time anciant libearays like eygpents and postably towns and city thow out world alexsadrer the great and many other king queen had there porivet or personal libarary.. That what you wright or thank or spell out in your head then typed it or wright is actrly same way and do or created a perdaction on paper 2000 yaers be for it happens that like creating your own world almannic free hand and every thing you leran and study form or createded a perdaction and used sciance and phsychic feld's math and diffent topics sove each vers of bible code or what round you it depains on created wrighter and perdactions by haveing scout study been resorching and travaled then created your own perdaction book it simple it tack you 5 to 45 yaers if you have books like book names and sciance phsychic math and history and many other sub jactes and feld study to created single book .... that what astology and many other people do they conatact there resorch to world and libaerary and bible and every thing like most people and plato and Menrado Devanchey say all roads lead to one... and also it postable... To teach it depaing how mouch leraning and studying to get postive negathive sieds (TRUTH OF EVERY THING ROUND US THAT EIFFACTING EVERY ONE ) by this qustion did guy lost cool! It not wright like that in bible ... you just doing athest style bible from abusive creative wright any way....
2007-06-12 07:55:16 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is because "bastard" is a normal term meaning a child born outside of wed-lock or without parents, it is todays society that has made the word "bastard" offensive.
Please stop knit-picking at the bible, you cannot beat God!
2007-06-12 07:42:10 · answer #7 · answered by Cookie_Monster_UK 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Haven't you got anything else to do. Bastard is not bad language it just refers to a child born out of wedlock. You are a fool. And just for your information, fool is not bad language either.
2007-06-12 08:17:36 · answer #8 · answered by LillyB 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Im assuming you are aware of the usage of bastard in this case! It was not considered a bad word in bible times.
But you already knew that - you jsut want to be awkward on yahoo lol
2007-06-12 07:41:03 · answer #9 · answered by dollymixture 4 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Several men wrote the bible. The problem is that after a while of being cooped up in a tiny poorly lit stone room they started needing sexual comfort and turned on themselves. The mixture of screwing eachother bloody and the Bible's "divine power" resulted in the creation of AIDs. I am not homophobic by the way, I'm simply giving an accurate account of the events. Anyway, after realizing that they were all gonna die they decided to curse the world.
2007-06-12 07:43:16 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
He was probably a bastard (without a father) himself and he was venting. You know-self hatred.
2007-06-12 07:40:53 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋