because god's a hypocrite.
i think it's kinda how like when he said "thou shalt not kill" then went off and told joshua to kill everyone.
2007-06-11 15:57:44
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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He did not tell him to go and commit adultery. Why are you taking the verses out of context? We are not making excuses, we are answering your questions, please be kind with your words! This whole chpter is an illustration and it even says so in the latter part of the verse you quoted.
2 When the Lord first began speaking to Israel through Hosea, he said to him, “Go and marry a prostitute,[b] so that some of her children will be conceived in prostitution. This will illustrate how Israel has acted like a prostitute by turning against the Lord and worshiping other gods.”
New Living Translation
2When the Lord first spoke with and through Hosea, the Lord said to him, Go, take to yourself a wife of harlotry and have children of [her] harlotry, for the land commits great whoredom by departing from the Lord.
Amplified Version
2007-06-11 17:32:53
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Funny you should mention that as I am in the process of preparing a Bible Study Guide on Hosea.
First off though God did not tell Hosea to commit adultery. He told him to mary a prostitute: a whore who would commit adultery.
Hosea, one of the most provocative prophets of the Old Testament, was called by God to declare God's impending judgment on the Northern Kingdom.
They had been experiencing an unparalleled prosperity in their time; and yet they had sunk to the lowest moral depths of their two century history.
As a result, God was about to use their enemies as His instrument of judgment. He used Hosea’s life as a metaphor of His relationship with Israel.
Three Main Points of Hosea Chapter 1
Introduction 1:1
1.Spiritual whoredom of Israel set forth by symbolical acts;
a. Gomer taken to wife at God's command: 1:2-3
2.The children
a.Jezreel, means "cast-away" 1:4-5
b.Loruhamah means "not pitied." And 1:6-7
c.Lomami, means “not my people," 1:8-9
3.Yet a promise of Judah and Israel's restoration 1:10-11
Hosea (God) loved his wife (Israel) but the wife turned to harlotry (sin) and was estranged (conquered and scattered) from him. He still loved her and even as she went from man to man (Assyria) he still provided for her until finally she sank to the depths of inequity and was stripped naked and sold at the slave market. At that point she repents and Hosea buys her back representing God’s love for His children.
This is a book of Prophecy that has yet to be totally fulfilled. Israel in this book is the 10 Lost Tribes of the Northern Kingdom that were conquered and scattered throughout the world. That occurred in 745 BC. The remainder of the Prophecy will be fulfilled when all the tribes are reunited in Israel and will mark the beginning of the end times.
2007-06-11 16:53:59
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answer #3
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answered by John 1:1 4
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That's a bad translation. Read Hosea 3:1 - 1 Then said the LORD unto me, Go yet, love a woman beloved of her friend, yet an adulteress, according to the love of the LORD toward the children of Israel, who look to other gods, and love flagons of wine.
2007-06-11 16:00:22
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answer #4
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answered by Trump 3
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Whoredom = prostitute. Is it adultery to marry a prostitute? No. Not the greatest of ideas but not a sin. He was not instructed to commit adultery, nor did he commit adultery. His wife, Gomer, did by going back to that life of whoredom after marrying Hosea. Hosea constantly went back and retrieved her over and over until she was won over by his dedication to her.
I hope that clears that up!
2007-06-11 16:04:15
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answer #5
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answered by MrMyers 5
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He doesn't tell the prophet Hosea to commit adultery. He tells the prophet to take a wife who will be unfaithful to him as an object lesson to the Israelites who were being unfaithful to Jehovah by worshipping other gods.
2007-06-11 16:02:01
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answer #6
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answered by Martin S 7
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Hosea does not commit adultery. God instructs him to marry a woman who would then commit adultery against HOSEA. This happened as a sign to the people of Israel. What God was showing them is that, like Gomer (Hosea's wife), Israel was "cheating on" their husband God - metaphorically.
Israel was worshiping, being intimately related to, other gods - leaving their true love, yahweh.
Hosea NEVER committed, nor was hever TOLD to commit, adultery. He, like God toward Israel, remained faithful, loving, patient, forgiving, long-suffering.....
2007-06-11 16:02:46
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answer #7
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answered by keri gee 6
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Hosea took a wife that was a harlot.He took her as his wife.There was no Adultery on Hosea's part.God did this to allow the prophet to understand how it felt to love someone who is unfaithful to you.God loves us all,but often we play the harlot with the devil.
2007-06-11 17:22:31
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answer #8
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answered by don_steele54 6
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Not necessarily a practicing prostitute but a description of what she became after Hosea married her.
2007-06-11 15:59:49
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answer #9
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answered by Fish <>< 7
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You could just read the rest of Hosea and find the answer yourself.
2007-06-11 16:49:33
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answer #10
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answered by Steve Amato 6
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The Lord was angry because we had once again blown it . You have to understand all the chances He had given us and all the times we let him down . He said take an adulterous wife because everything on the land was considered adulterous . He was about to break His covenent with Isreal . He had had it with us . If He hadn't sent Jesus to save us , it would be all over for us .
2007-06-11 16:12:19
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answer #11
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answered by opinionated 4
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