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At Genesis 1:1 the title “God” is translated from ’Elo•him′, which is plural in Hebrew. Trinitarians construe this to be an indication of the Trinity. They also explain Deuteronomy 6:4 to imply the unity of members of the Trinity when it says, “The LORD our God [from ’Elo•him′] is one LORD.” The plural form of the noun here in Hebrew is the plural of majesty or excellence. (See NAB, St. Joseph Edition, Bible Dictionary, p. 330; also, New Catholic Encyclopedia, 1967, Vol. V, p. 287.) It conveys no thought of plurality of persons within a godhead. In similar fashion, at Judges 16:23 when reference is made to the false god Dagon, a form of the title ’elo•him′ is used; the accompanying verb is singular, showing that reference is to just the one god. At Genesis 42:30, Joseph is spoken of as the “lord” (’adho•neh′, the plural of excellence) of Egypt. The Greek language does not have a ‘plural of majesty or excellence.’ So, at Genesis 1:1 the translators of LXX used ho The•os′ (God, singular)

2007-06-11 00:06:04 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

3 answers

footnote in The New Revised Standard Version Study Bible we read:

"Gen 1.26-27 Let us. The plural form does not indicate multiple gods, but God and the retinue of the divine court."

2007-06-12 11:53:58 · answer #1 · answered by TeeM 7 · 0 0

No. In the Hebrew Scriptures, the word ´eloh'ah (god) has two plural forms, namely, ´elo·him' (gods) and ´elo·heh' (gods of). These plural forms generally refer to Jehovah, in which case they are translated in the singular as "God." Do these plural forms indicate a Trinity? No, they do not. In A Dictionary of the Bible, William Smith says: "The fanciful idea that [´elo·him'] referred to the trinity of persons in the Godhead hardly finds now a supporter among scholars. It is either what grammarians call the plural of majesty, or it denotes the fullness of divine strength, the sum of the powers displayed by God."

´Elo·him' means, not "persons," but "gods." So those who argue that this word implies a Trinity make themselves polytheists, worshipers of more than one God. Why? Because it would mean that there were three gods in the Trinity. But nearly all Trinity supporters reject the view that the Trinity is made up of three separate gods.

The Bible also uses the words ´elo·him' and ´elo·heh' when referring to a number of false idol gods. (Exodus 12:12; 20:23) But at other times it may refer to just a single false god, as when the Philistines referred to "Dagon their god [´elo·heh']." (Judges 16:23, 24) Baal is called "a god [´elo·him']." (1 Kings 18:27) In addition, the term is used for humans. (Psalm 82:1, 6) Moses was told that he was to serve as "God" [´elo·him'] to Aaron and to Pharaoh.—Exodus 4:16; 7:1.

Obviously, using the titles ´elo·him' and ´elo·heh' for false gods, and even humans, did not imply that each was a plurality of gods; neither does applying ´elo·him' or ´elo·heh' to Jehovah mean that he is more than one person, especially when we consider the testimony of the rest of the Bible on this subject.

2007-06-11 07:19:39 · answer #2 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 1 0

it applies to both-"Let us make man in our image." Genesis
this is how I as a Hebrew Jew came to know this too= Jesus the promised messiah to die for our sins-"Unto us a child will be born, a son given, and he will be Almighty God, the prince of peace." Isaiah 9:6
how I as a Jew came to know Jesus-I prayed-"Jesus I believe you and ask you to forgive my sins and come into my heart to be my friend, amen."

Jesus promised this in Revelation 3:19&20 "I love you and knock on your heart door to come in, if you repent and ask me in, I will come in and become your friend."
Pray and I am praying for you too, David-many are coming to know the true Jesus of the bible.

2007-06-11 07:11:20 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

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