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muslims, if you found out that your sibling/parent/relative is a secret christian..wat would you do?

2007-06-10 17:22:54 · 7 answers · asked by sylll 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

7 answers

True Story... and going on as of today.

I'm not a Muslim, but friends of mine are former Muslims.
They were driven into hiding by their former Muslim friends after converting to Christianity.
Their property was confiscated and sold by the Muslim community.
They were found and beaten by their Muslim captors.
They have been drugged, beaten and kidnapped by Muslims.
They have been transported across international borders and taken from Africa to Yemen, against their will.
They are being put on display and beaten publicly by their Muslim captors to make other Muslims fear.
After their "tour" in Yemen's Mosques, it is expected by the rest of their family (who are now in hiding) that their parents will be killed.

Already, 8 people have been murdered by Muslim mobs in Tanzania because of this couple's witness to others about Jesus Christ.

And there is nothing that anyone, or any government will do to lift a finger to help them and put an end to this atrocity.

2007-06-10 17:40:44 · answer #1 · answered by Bobby Jim 7 · 1 3

Sorry to assist you comprehend this, yet maximum Muslim international locations are secular. Do your homework until eventually now embarrassing your self. Your hyperlink is crap. ***Jews have lived between Muslims freely for hundreds of years. Take Iran for the ideal occasion. you are able to no longer PAY those Jews to go away. Iraq has the utmost graduate degree fee between women, and has constantly been secular. Christian Assyrians make up a huge chew of the inhabitants, and are death alongside Muslims in this conflict. If the "Israeli national information" is going to be the only source here, than it is extremely not a extreme question. it is fiction.

2016-10-08 23:15:03 · answer #2 · answered by Erika 4 · 0 0

Depending on Which country.

Since you are from Singapore, you should know the case of what happened in Malaysia.

2007-06-10 17:28:46 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Pray for them?

I'm guessing.

Because I'm Christian, not Muslim.

Cheers!

ST

2007-06-10 17:26:18 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

um nothing

my mom converted to Islam
and when she told her family they eventually got over it.
they were crying and moaning about it but they got over it.
and my whole (Muslim) family is pretty religious so i doubt any one would convert, but if for some reason they did
then i guess its between them and God
i would still love them though, if that's what your asking.

2007-06-10 17:33:50 · answer #5 · answered by . 3 · 0 0

it differs on case by case!

if he is a relative and was a muslim before but has converted now i will report him to the police.

if he was not a muslim from the begining i will stop my relations with him/her as he/she had lied to me for so long.

If he/she is my parents.. well that won't be possible as they would have brought me up as a chritian if they were not as a muslim. but lets say they were from the begining understanding that they saw something in Islam that they let me be a muslim i will invite them to islam.

if they converted (may Allah keep us from that situation) i will reprot them to the police.

My siblings well same as above if they convert i will report them and that conversion will mean my faliure as a parent.

2007-06-10 17:36:08 · answer #6 · answered by chessman259 2 · 0 4

Why Word Inspired by God (Bible) has three genealogies of Jesus pbuh.
How could the "inspired words" of God get the genealogy of Jesus incorrect (See Matthew 1:6-16 where it states 26 forefathers up to Prophet David, and Luke 3:23-31 says 41 in number). Or for that matter, give a genealogy to Jesus who had NO father?

There is difference of centuries between II Kings 19:1-37 and Isaiah 37:1-38.Why both has same verses.
See II Kings 19:1-37, now read Isaiah 37:1-38. Why is it that the words of these verse are identical? Yet they have been attributed SAME WORDS to two different authors, one unknown and the other is Isaiah, who are centuries apart; and yet, the Christians have claimed these books to be inspired by God.

Why Jewish celebrations forcefully baptized by Christians.
I looked up the word Easter in the Nelson Bible dictionary and learned that the word "Easter" (as mentioned in Acts 12:4) is a mistranslation of "pascha," the ordinary Greek word for "Passover." As, you know Passover is a Jewish celebration not a Christian holiday. I think human hands, all to human, had played havoc with the Bible.
From the brief points mentioned above, and the fact that Biblical scholars themselves have recognized the human nature and human composition of the Bible (Curt Kuhl, The Old Testament: Its Origin and Composition, PP 47, 51, 52), there should exist in the Christian’s mind some acceptance to the fact that maybe every word of the Bible is not God’s word.


What is According to:
Christians boast about the Gospels according to Matthew, according to Mark, according to Luke and according to John. However, if we think about it, there is not a single Gospel according to Jesus himself. According to the preface of the KJV (King James Version) new open Bible study edition, the word "Gospel" was added (see below) to the original titles, "According to John, according to Matthew, according to Luke and according to Mark." Incidentally, why does every "Gospel" begin with the introduction According to. Why "according to?" the reason for this is because not a single one of the gospels carries its original author’s autograph!

Luke never met Jesus pbuh, Is the gospel of Luke really a hearsay.
If you read Luke 1:2-3, you will learn, as I did, that Luke (who was not one of the 12 disciples and never met Jesus) said that he himself was not an eyewitness, and the knowledge he gathered was from eyewitnesses, and not as words inspired by God. Incidentally, why does every "Gospel" begin with the introduction According to. Why "according to?" the reason for this is because not a single one of the gospels carries its original author’s autograph! Even the internal evidence of
Was ‘Gospel according to Matthew’ was not written by Matthew, according to Bible?
Matthew 9:9 proves that Matthew was not the author of the first Gospel which bears his name:
"And as Jesus passed forth thence, He (Jesus) saw a man, named Matthew, sitting at the receipt of custom: and He (Jesus) saith unto Him (Matthew), follow me (Jesus). And he (Matthew) arose, and followed Him (Jesus)." Without any stretch of the imagination, one can see that the He’s and the Him’s of the above narration do not refer to Jesus or Matthew as its author, but a third person writing what he saw or heard - a hearsay account and not words inspired by God.

Did Pagan Constantine contributed in writing the word of God?
It is worth noting, and well known throughout the religious world, that the choice of the present four "gospels" of the New Testament (Matthew, Mark, Luke and John) were imposed in the Council of Nicea 325 CE for political purposes under the auspices of the pagan Emperor Constantine, and not by Jesus. Constantine’s mind had not been enlightened either by study or by inspiration. He was a pagan, a tyrant and criminal who murdered his son, his wife and thousands of innocent individuals because of his lust for political power. Constantine ratified other decisions in the Nicene Creed such as the decision to call Christ "the Son of God, only begotten of the father."

Which gospels bluntly removed from Bible?
Literally, hundreds of gospels and religious writings were hidden from the people. Some of those writings were written by Jesus’ disciples, and many of them were eyewitness accounts of Jesus’ actions. The Nicea Council decided to destroy all gospels written in Hebrew, which resulted in the burning of nearly three hundred accounts. If these writings were not more authentic than the four present gospels, they were of equal authenticity. Some of them are still available such as the Gospel of Barnabas and the Shepherd of Hermas which agree with the Quran. The Gospel of Barnabas, until now, is the only eyewitness account of the life and mission of Jesus. Even today, the whole of the Protestant word, Jehovah’s Witnesses, Seventh Day Adventists and other sects and denominations condemn the Roman Catholic version of the Bible because it contains seven "extra" books. The Protestant have bravely expunged seven whole books from their word of God. A few of the outcasts are the Books of Judith, Tobnias, Baruch and Esther.


Are present gospels utterances of Jesus pbuh?
Concerning Jesus’ teachings of the Gospel (Injeel), the Gospel writers frequently mentioned Jesus preaching the Gospel: Matthew 9:35, Mark 8:35, and Luke 20:1. The word "gospel" is recurrently used in the Bible. However, in the New Testament Greek edition the word Evangeline is used in place of the word gospel, which is translated to mean good news. My question was: what Gospel did Jesus preach? Of the 27 books of the New Testament, only a small fraction can be accepted as the words of Jesus, and only of the 27 books are known to be attributed as the Gospel of Jesus. The remaining 23 were supposedly written by Paul. Muslims do believe that Jesus was given God’s "Good News." However, they do not recognized the present four Gospels as the utterances of Jesus.
The permission to call "According to" writings the Gospel was not given by Jesus nor by any other divine guidance. These writings; Matthew, Luke, Mark and John, were never originally to be the Gospel. Therefore, Mark 1:1 can not be a true statement that his writing is the gospel of Jesus.

Mark and Luke are not found in the biblical list of 12 disciples.
The earliest Gospel is that of Mark’s which was written about 60-75 AD. Mark was the son of Barnabas’s sister. Matthew was a tax collector, a minor official who did not travel around with Jesus. Luke’s Gospel was written much later, and in fact, drawn from the same sources as Mark’s and Matthew’s. Luke was Paul’s physician, and like Paul, never met Jesus. By the way, did you know that the names Marks and Luke were not included in the 12 appointed disciples of Jesus as mentioned in Matthew 10:2-4?
Now the names of the twelve apostles are these; the first, Simon, who is called Peter, and Andrew his brother; James the son of Zebedee, and John his brother; Philip, and Bartholomew; Thomas, and Matthew the publican; James the son of Alphaeus, and Lebbaeus, whose surname was Thaddaeus; Simon the Canaanite, and Judas Iscariot, who also betrayed him.

What are Original scriptures sent by Lord?
It should be mentioned that Muslims must believe in all Divine scriptures in their original form, their Prophets and making no distinction between them: The Suhuf (Abraham); Torah (Moses); Psalms (David); Gospel - or the Injeel (Jesus); and the Quran (Muhammad). It is clearly stated in the Quran 3:3 that Allah sent down the Torah and the Gospel. However, none of these scriptures remains in its original form now, except the Quran, which was sent for all mankind everywhere and for all times.

Is Bible is word of third party human hands
Quran was sent to mankind, as mentioned in 18:4-5 it was sent to warn the Christians of a terrible punishment from God if they cease not in saying: "Allah has begotten a son."
Muslims sincerely believe that everything Jesus (May the peace and blessing of Allah be upon him) preached was from God; the Gospel (Injeel): The "good news" and the guidance of God for the Children of Israel. There is no place mentioned in the present four Gospels that Jesus wrote a single word of his Gospel, nor is it mentioned that Jesus instructed anyone to do so. What passes off, as the "Gospels" today are the works of third party human hands. The Quran 2:79 says:
"And woe to those who write the book with their own hands and they say: "This is from Allah (God)." To traffic with it for a miserable price! So woe to them for what their hands do write, and woe to them for what they earn thereby!"

Is Jesus the Son of God?
Matthew 3:17 could be used by some Christians to support the divine Sonship of Jesus. If Matthew 3:17, "And Lo a voice for heaven, saying, this is my beloved son in whom I am well pleased," is used to support divine Sonship, then there should be no other verse that contradicts or gives equal divine Sonship to another person or persons in the Old or New Testament. However, many references were found in the Old and New Testaments that mentioned someone other than Jesus as having a divine Sonship to God. See Exodus 4:22: "Israel is my son, even my firstborn." II Samuel 7:14 and I Chronicles 22:10: "...and he shall be my son (Solomon)." Jeremiah 31:9: "...and Ephraim is my firstborn." Also, Psalm 2:7.
The word "Son" must not be accepted literally because God addresses many of his chosen servants as son and sons. The Jews have also claimed Ezra to be the Son of God. The New Testament Greek words used for "son" (pias and paida, which mean servant or son in the sense of servant) are translated as son in reference to Jesus and as servant in reference to others in some translations of the Bible.

What ‘Father’ means?
Further, the term "Father" as used by Jesus corresponds more closely to the term Rabb, i.e. One who nourishes and sustains, so that in Jesus’ doctrine, God is "Father" – Nourisher and Sustainer – of all men. The New Testament also interprets "son of God" to be mystical: "For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God." (Romans 8:14).

2007-06-10 17:27:19 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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