2007-06-10 16:19:57 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Wait until someone tries to tell them Mark was written 40+ years after JC's reported death in Rome by a man that never encountered Jesus. And the other gospels were all writen after that.
2007-06-10 16:24:07 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Actually, it was written in Koine Greek, not Attic (the poetic/literary dialect). Koine was the common vulgar Greek of fishermen, laborers and common folk.
Secondly, you assume he was illiterate. Jews by and large have had the most literate culture in history. So, your assumption has little to back it.
Thirdly, it is again assumptive that it was written a century after his life. While we do not have manuscripts that early, nothing textually would warrant such a claim.
Finally, the inspiration of the Holy Spirit creates poet laureates from the sins of men, giving hope to those who hear His voice.
Ath
2007-06-10 16:32:11 · answer #2 · answered by athanasius was right 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You havent got a clue as to when 2nd Peter was written. I am still praying that you will listen to your donkey . Hear 2nd Peter 3:3
Knowing this first, that there shall come in the last days scoffers, walking after their own lusts, And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation. For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water: Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished: But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men.
Please listen to your donkey.
2007-06-10 16:31:03 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Can I ask you to verify the dates that you have? Also, where did you come up with him being illiterate. Seeing as he spent years hanging around Luke (a physician) and Matthew (a tax collector) I'd bet he had time to learn how to read if he didn't during his childhood.
Also I don't know if I'd call it poetic.
B
2007-06-10 16:23:54 · answer #4 · answered by The Brian 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
All my life I have heard about the miracles of the ancients. Course I will admit I was raised around Christians. But wow, Golly Gee, is this another?
2007-06-10 16:29:01 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sure it does more miracle than a DOG with microchip found 3 hundred miles away from home
2007-06-10 16:23:38 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It would be, had the 2nd Epistle of Peter not been written prior to 96AD by St Peter's amanuensis.
2007-06-10 16:30:49 · answer #7 · answered by kmsbean 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only if you leave the quotes around the word miracle.
2007-06-10 16:22:22 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, as much of a miracle as a donkey that speaks.
2007-06-10 16:25:45 · answer #9 · answered by Bobby Jim 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Why do you assume him to have been illiterate? Who told you he was writing after his death? Greek....what?
The donkey needs another bag of oats. Mercy.
Do I smell that simpleton Dawkins lurking about?
2007-06-10 16:28:29 · answer #10 · answered by sympleesymple 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋