Romans 3:23.
for all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God.
christians way or the chruch23: for all will sin and come short of the glory of God.
is there a differace in these verses???? or are they the same? what is the differace?
2007-06-09 16:39:54 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
the difference is a tense. past and future.
2007-06-09 16:42:46 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
The only difference I can see is in the verb tenses, past in the first verse and present in the second.
The significance might be that the first verse refers to "original sin" and the idea that people are born sinful whereas the second one is more concerned with what sins people commit in their lives after birth.
(just a thought.)
2007-06-09 23:51:15 · answer #2 · answered by K 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its the same,we all are born into sin since the fall of Adam and we all are sinners that fall short of His glory that is why Jesus died to give us grace w/o Him none of us could be saved as for the church 23 we not only will sin but do on a daily basis
2007-06-09 23:49:32 · answer #3 · answered by loveChrist 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They are the same and mean we will not fully realize his glory until we become fully purified. Because Jesus said "Go and sin no more." this means Jesus takes one past sins once the person has fully accepted him and after that they are to follow his teachings. Jesus never said he died for our sins. Man did. He said Those who believe in me will be saved. (alibiing) Believing means following his teachings. Otherwise one has to falsely think that those who follow very strictly the teachings of Jesus and laws of God and those who just believe that Jesus is the son of God and do any dam thing they want will attain the same result (eternal heaven) this is a concoction. God is fare and one gets the result of their actions. That is a fact. He take their sins when they follow his teachings fully. For the original New testament before King Constantine changed it google gospelofthenazirenes.com Following the Truth will set you free.
2007-06-09 23:50:44 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Could you please tell me where you have found it in the future tense? I have never seen it, all the versions I have looked up have it as "all have sinned" as in past tense. I checked King James(KJV), Contemporary English(CEV), Hebrew Names(HNV),American Standard(ASV),New International(NIV),and Webster's Bible. There are obviously many versions and I am curious as to where you found it. Though I haven't seen it, the answer would just be the tense, but it basically has the same meaning.
2007-06-09 23:59:10 · answer #5 · answered by gobster 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They are the same the simple message is that all humans sin during their life, and this sin causes separation from God.
2007-06-09 23:47:10 · answer #6 · answered by L.C. 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
One is what God has said. The other is what man has said so they can continue in their sins. The sins that they don't want to change or aren't ready to give up.
2007-06-12 01:46:02 · answer #7 · answered by Peggy Pirate 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"have" did or might do unintentionally (slip)
"will" looking for a loophole to sin
Romans 6:1 " what shall we say shall we continue in sin that Grace may abound, God forbid how can we which are dead to sin live any longer therein?"
2007-06-09 23:44:43 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
I would suspect that it is just another way to say the same thing.
2007-06-09 23:43:05 · answer #9 · answered by Poohcat1 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Do What?
2007-06-09 23:45:11 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋