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What do you have to say to Matthew 24:36 "Concerning that the day or hour nobody knows,neither the angels of the heavens nor the Son,but only the Father."? If God and Jesus were the same person wouldn't he know the hour or day as well?

2007-06-09 14:32:21 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

I don't and never will believe the Trinity.Its way to confusing. Why would God want to teach anything confusing? Ok,Jesus and God are they same person as you say,then how is the holy spirit a person if that is god's active force? A

2007-06-09 14:55:22 · update #1

I will never believe the Trinity.It is too confusing. Why would God want to confuse his people? And then how is the holy spirit a person if thats God's active force? And Psalms 83:18 That people may know that you,whose name is Jehovah,You alone are the most High over all the earth. Notice it said YOU ALONE.

2007-06-09 14:58:26 · update #2

13 answers

I totally agree with you.

Oh and to the guy who said to read JOhn 1:1-14 to prove trinity...why don't you read John 1:1-3 +18. Verse 18 says no man has ever seen God. Have people seen Jesus? Yes thousands!!! So Jesus can't be God...

Oh and if Jesus were God..and he died..then who resurrected him???

2007-06-09 15:02:00 · answer #1 · answered by baffled 1 · 1 1

When Jesus spoke these words to the disciples, even He had no knowledge of the date and time of His return. Although Jesus was fully God (John 1:1, 14), when He became a man, He voluntarily restricted the use of certain divine attributes (Philippians 2:6–8). He did not manifest them unless directed by the Father (John 4:34; 5:30; 6:38). He demonstrated His omniscience on several occasions (cf. John 2:25; 3:13), but He voluntarily restricted that omniscience to only those things God wanted Him to know during the days of His humanity (John 15:15). Such was the case regarding the knowledge of the date and time of His return. After He was resurrected, Jesus resumed His full divine knowledge (cf. Matthew 28:18; Acts 1:7).



Matthew 24:36 clearly states that the Father alone knows when Jesus' return will be. Verses such as John 5:30; 6:38; 8:28-29; 10:30; 12:49; 14:28, 31; and Matthew 26:39, 42 demonstrate Jesus' submission to the Father as well as their Oneness in the Godhead. Yes, they are both God. But some things Jesus had apparently chosen to "give up the rights" to be privy to during His earthly ministry (see Philippians 2:5-11). Jesus, now exalted in Heaven, surely knows all, including the timing of His Second Coming.

Recommended Resource: Why Believe in Jesus?: Who He Is, What He Did, and His Message for You Today by Tim LaHaye.

2007-06-09 16:43:49 · answer #2 · answered by Freedom 7 · 0 1

well not really. the Son Jesus was 100 percent God and 100 percent man. son refers to the 100 percent man part. why dont you ask yourself then what about john 1:1-14 or 1 tim 3:16

and for the record first. i dont believe in the trinity either. the trinity is 3 persons or dieties that makes up God. i believe all 3 the Father, Son and Holy Ghost are all one. and just different titles or roles for God. and the Holy Spirit is a Spirit not a person. God is Spirit. Jesus was God manifested in the flesh. if you believe the bible as i stated read 1 tim 3:16 or john 1:1-14.


and no man has seen the Spirit of God. seeing Jesus you have not seen God you seen flesh. you see me and many other christians who have the Holy Ghost but you cant see the Holy Ghost. also the Bible says that first the Father rose Jesus, then there is a verse that the Holy Ghost rose Jesus and then there is a verse that Jesus rose himself. how could this be if Jesus was dead. oh wait a min. Jesus was not dead his flesh was. however he went into the earth and preached to those who were in the earth. so he was not dead.

2007-06-09 14:37:10 · answer #3 · answered by dannamanna99 5 · 1 1

You have confused trinity with Sabellianism. While Jesus has the same divine attributes as the Father, HE IS NOT THE FATHER.

John 1:1 states this very clearly and succinctly in Greek, but few translations do justice to the passage. Daniel B. Wallace, a Dallas Theological Seminary instructor quoted some version (without naming it) as rendering the last clause, "What God was, the Word was" which gives a much closer understanding of the original meaning of the passage.

Here is Wallace as quoted by Mounce in "Basics of Biblical Greek Grammar:"

We know that “the Word” is the subject because it has the definite article, and we translate it accordingly: “and the Word was God.” Two questions, both of theological import, should come to mind: (1) why was 'theos(God)' thrown forward? and (2) why does it lack the article? In brief, its emphatic position stresses its essence or quality: “What God was, the Word was” is how one translation brings out this force. Its lack of a definite article keeps us from identifying the person of the Word (Jesus Christ) with the person of “God” (the Father). That is to say, the word order tells us that Jesus Christ has all the divine attributes that the Father has; lack of the article tells us that Jesus Christ is not the Father. John’s wording here is beautifully compact! It is, in fact, one of the most elegantly terse theological statements one could ever find. As Martin Luther said, the lack of an article is against Sabellianism; the word order is against Arianism.
... Jesus Christ is God and has all the attributes that the Father has. But he is not the first person of the Trinity. All this is concisely affirmed in 'kai theos en ho logos'.

...The Greek construction is called a "predicate nominative." It links a "BE" verb and 2 nouns with or without articles. As Mounce/Wallace point out, the construction in John 1:1 affirms the divine nature of Jesus without supplanting the supremacy of the Father.

2007-06-09 14:39:10 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

God the Father is Jehovah. God the Son is Jesus. The Father will tell the Son. (Maybe He already has.) Even so, come, Lord Jesus.

2007-06-09 14:51:38 · answer #5 · answered by erina4holmes 2 · 1 0

If Jesus (G-d) didn't humble himself by coming into the world and baptized by a mortal (John the Baptist) righteousness couldn't be perfect. If your righteous and perfect, but not very, very, humble then your righteousness and perfection doesn't exist in this world. G-d could not humble Himself in a fallen world unless He came and submitted Himself to the essence of who He was... G-d. Jesus also gave us a perfect example in this to follow. Righteousness is as imperfect as sin if you do not measure out a great amount of humbleness and submit to G-d... giving all glory to Him. (This also means submission to all in authority over you... parents, teachers, police, leaders, etc... unless maybe if what they command of you, conflicts with a commandment of G-d).

2007-06-09 14:47:12 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No...because they are both God but not necessarily the same person in that sense. They are separate persons without compromising their unity.

Jesus prayed often...he prayed and talked to the Father. If he and the Father were one, you could ask the same type of question. Why would Jesus have to pray, since he is God it would be like praying to himself.

He and the Father are one God and yet separate.

2007-06-09 14:44:03 · answer #7 · answered by Misty 7 · 1 2

That scripture totally demolishes the basis of the entire Roman Catholic "faith".
It means that the R.C. clergy are responsible FOR MISLEADING millions of innocent people.
And that is why Revelation says this;
(Revelation 18:4-5) And I heard another voice out of heaven say: “Get out of her, my people, if YOU do not want to share with her in her sins, and if YOU do not want to receive part of her plagues. 5 For her sins have massed together clear up to heaven, and God has called her acts of injustice to mind.
Further, Revelation describes 'her'.
(Revelation 18:9-12) “And the kings of the earth who committed fornication with her and lived in shameless luxury will weep and beat themselves in grief over her, when they look at the smoke from the burning of her, 10 while they stand at a distance because of their fear of her torment and say, ‘Too bad, too bad, you great city, Babylon you strong city, because in one hour your judgment has arrived!’ 11 “Also, the traveling merchants of the earth are weeping and mourning over her, because there is no one to buy their full stock anymore, 12 a full stock of gold and silver and precious stone and pearls and fine linen and purple and silk and scarlet; and everything in scented wood and every sort of ivory object and every sort of object out of most precious wood and of copper and of iron and of marble;

PURPLE AND SCARLET ROBES...GREAT WEALTH...ICONS....STATUES....

(Exodus 20:4-5) “You must not make for yourself a carved image or a form like anything that is in the heavens above or that is on the earth underneath or that is in the waters under the earth. 5 You must not bow down to them nor be induced to serve them, because I Jehovah your God am a God exacting exclusive devotion, bringing punishment for the error of fathers upon sons, upon the third generation and upon the fourth generation, in the case of those who hate me;

2007-06-09 15:18:50 · answer #8 · answered by pugjw9896 7 · 1 0

the Father and Jesus are separate persons........The Father is the God we know,,....and Jesus is his spirit son.....

2007-06-09 14:42:24 · answer #9 · answered by Marianne T 3 · 1 0

Strain at a gnat and swallow a camel? At that point, Jesus was incarnate as a human.

2007-06-09 14:35:40 · answer #10 · answered by Linda R 7 · 1 1

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