Start with Genesis, where Adam and Eve's kids practice incest to populate the Earth. Then check Noah's family, where it starts again. Or, continues, depending upon your POV.
2007-06-07 17:38:50
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
2⤊
0⤋
hi there
i got a list of sexual encounters in the OT, most of them are immoral, and i dont believe they were divinely inspired (as a muslim)- some can be graphic, but i wont type up a complete list
Gen
19:30-36 father, two daughters
35:22 son and mum
38:15-30 judah and 2 daughters
2 samuels 13: 5-14
16: 21-23
Proverbs
7:7-22
song of songs
1:12-13,
3: 1-4
4:1-7
and leviticus ofcourse...
Some of these events- we see clear indication that there was a lot of guilt and shame expressed by the characters, which is an indication of sin- why should we be sad about doing something "lawful"? (whatever lawfulness means anyway)
but i dont believe that u know, prophets and men and women of God, and the wives of prophets and noble and holy people would engage in such shameful actions
some christians try to defend these actions saying: the bible puts these stuff in the bible so that we get a well rounded understanding of the lives of these people, others say it was lawful back then to rape or seduce a father, prostitution, or to blackmail someone with sex...
as a muslim, i say that the bible was written over 4000 years and we have no way of definitely confirming that it hasnt been tampered with, and indeed it has and all these stories in there are there to put a black mark on the honour of the prophets and the holy and pious people who followed the path that they took.
2007-06-07 23:17:54
·
answer #2
·
answered by ghostdude! 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
Homosexuality is a sin all through the OT and NT. Adultery also is a sin from the beginning. Both have many verse attesting to their sinfulness. The Blue Letter Bible on line, as well as many others have commentaries and concordances available. Here is the link http://www.blueletterbible.org/
Incest is not addressed directly but is obviously implied from Adam and Eve through the Flood and Noah and His family repopulating the earth. (Genesis)
The only direct mention of incest that I can recall is where after the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah (Gen 19:30-38) Lot and his daughters are living in a cave in the mountains and the girls believing (wrongly) they are the last living souls get Lot drunk and sleep with him to perpetuate humanity.
No mention is made of it other than it happened and each of the girls had a son, Moab and Benammi.
However, some scholars believe that God was not pleased because Lot and his daughters are never again mentioned in the Bible.
2007-06-07 18:19:34
·
answer #3
·
answered by John 1:1 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
Some of the answers below are moronic. Incest is only incest when specified by Law. In the beginning, God himself wanted the human family to come out of Adam and Eve. Thus at the very beginning though brothers married sisters, it was not incest -- because there was no law defining it as such, and because it was God's will for it to happen. (these people need an education)
---------------------
Under the law covenant incest became a crime: the scripture is quite long. Here is the reference:
Leviticus 18:6-17, 29; 20:11, 12, 14)
2007-06-07 18:06:55
·
answer #4
·
answered by Fuzzy 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
People are so quick to judge, aren't they? And judgment is so much easier if they simply don't research the facts.
Cain likely married his sister... Lot's daughters had sex with their dad. It was NOT incest. WHY? Because the law and the command- was not given. This was the standard operating procedure of the day.
Later, through Moses, God passed the command to all His people that sexuality must not take place among close relatives. The reason for the law against what is now known as incest? Sin had so degraded the gene pool ...that birth defects had begun happening. God was instructing how to avoid such tragedy.
Lev. 18
Lev. 20
Deut. 27: 20-23
2007-06-07 17:43:27
·
answer #5
·
answered by baronbago 4
·
2⤊
1⤋
THE ISRAELITES WERE GIVEN THE LAW
The law of the land establishes what is from there on, not what was in the past [ when no genetic defects occured ], but with giants, hunchbacks and dwarfs on the scene, it is time to pair with a more distant family member. Gen.19:24; There were not even 10 in Sodom and Gomorrah to abide by a land law [ as before the flood, violence was earth wide ], lawlessness can not be tollerated. 2Pet.2:6 - 10:
Matt.22:39 - 40; Man can be a law unto himself. Matt.6:9-13; Man knows how it is if some one trespass against him, and
that is all he needs to know to respect all he did not create, and all who are sharing it.
2007-06-07 17:56:07
·
answer #6
·
answered by jeni 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
Genesis 4:17 says, "Cain lay with his wife, and she became pregnant and gave birth to Enoch." Who was his wife? It is implied in the biblical text that Cain married one of his sisters. Several facts lead us to this conclusion.
First, it is clear that Adam and Eve had a number of children. Genesis 5:4 says, "After Seth was born, Adam lived 800 years and had other sons and daughters." Since Adam and Eve were the first man and woman, and since God had commanded them (and their descendants) to be fruitful and multiply (Genesis 1:28), it seems reasonable to conclude that Cain married one of his many sisters. It is also possible that he married a niece or even a grandniece.
One must keep in mind that in the early years of the human race there were no genetic defects that had yet developed as a result of the fall of man. By the time of Abraham, God had not yet declared this kind of marriage to be contrary to His will (see Genesis 20:12). Laws governing incest apparently did not become enacted until the time of Moses (Lev 18:7-17; 20:11,12,14,17,20,21). Hence, there was no prohibition regarding marrying a sister (or niece or grandniece) in the days of Cain.
To learn more on this subject you can go to http://www.answersingenesis.org
2007-06-07 17:37:55
·
answer #7
·
answered by Freedom 7
·
3⤊
0⤋
Incestuous relationships were actually allowed early on in the Old Testament. (Cain and Seth would have married their sisters, for example; Genesis 5:4)
Some Bible scholars (not all) look at Genesis 9:24 as possible evidence of homosexual incest, and it was not looked up favorably.
Abrahm married his half-sister, Sarai. (Genesis 20:12) Abram's brother married his niece (Genesis 11:27-29)
Jacob married his first cousin(s) (Leah & Rachel, daughters of Leban, Jacob's uncle on his mother's side.)(Genesis 28:2)
But upon the giving of the Levitical Law, incestuous relationships were forbidden.
2007-06-07 18:04:28
·
answer #8
·
answered by Bobby Jim 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
Ever read the story where Lot's wife turns into a pillar of salt? Keep reading.... (Genesis chapter 19) After Lot and his two daughters leave and get to a cave his two daughters are afraid that they will never find anyone to marry and will die without having any kids.... Well they get the dad drunk, rape him, and get pregnant from him.... Isn't the Old Testament full of wonderful stories!!
2007-06-07 17:39:59
·
answer #9
·
answered by Trump 3
·
2⤊
0⤋
If you are looking to verify much of what it says about immorality in the Blible, you would be better off doing cultural studies into the past which "explain" it BETTER. Incest in ancient times was common, even amongst the hebrews. To verify this as truth, GENETICALLY, in Genesis God forms man then USES his rib to make a woman for him. Eve, "medically," "scientifically," and "genetically," was his SISTER. The references you are looking at I am sure is that of in general immorality within the family structure, of "which" the hebrews are not the greatest examples "of." Whatever you find within the hebrew word about morality, is always contradicted by the actions of it's peoples so directing you to any of dozens of do's and don't is futile BASED on the many many contradictions in the religion of these peoples...........
2007-06-07 17:53:10
·
answer #10
·
answered by Theban 5
·
0⤊
1⤋