If The Virgin Mary was born without Original Sin....?

Question

Is She was born without Original Sin, then why did she have to go through the "pains of child birth"?

Because the "pain of child birth" was one of our punishments of Original Sin for Adam and Eve having eaten the forbidden fruit.

But Mary was born without Original Sin so why did she have to suffer?

The Bible calls Mary “full of grace” (Luke1:26). The Immaculate Conception means that Mary was preserved from original sin and redeemed by God’s grace from the moment of her conception. Unlike Jesus who was miraculously conceived without a human father, Mary was conceived in the normal way by her parents.

The official teaching of the Church says: “The most Blessed Virgin Mary was, from the moment of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of almighty God and by virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, Savior of the human race, preserved immune from all original sin.”

What Christ does for everyone who calls upon his name and is baptized (Acts 2:38; 4:12; Romans 10:13) he did for his mother when she was conceived. “By the grace of God Mary remained free of every personal sin her whole life long.” [Catechism of the Catholic Church no. 493]

Answer 1

Bible makes no sense honestly.

"ifs and buts" is what biblical interpretation is based on.

Answer 2

Always use the Bible for the authority in Truth.

The veneration of Mary is based on the teaching of intercession by saints, regarding which there is nothing in the Scriptures. First in 1854 was “the immaculate conception of the Virgin Mary” made a dogma, and that in direct contradiction of the plain Scriptural teaching that all have sinned, that all are sinners, that none are righteous. (Rom. 3:10-12; 5:12) Nothing is said about Mary’s being an exception. Had she been sinless she could not have died a “natural” death.

Mary, Jesus' mother, was an excellent servant of God. She had a love for the scriptures.
When the angel Gabriel announced that she was to give birth, she manifested surprise. Being a virgin, she had not had "intercourse with a man." On learning that the birth was to be by means of holy spirit, she humbly accepted the message, saying: "Look! Jehovah's slave girl! May it take place with me according to your declaration." (Luke 1:30-38) She valued the spiritual privilege so much that she was willing to bear any hardship that her decision might entail.
Lots of women from the Bible were blessed. She was chosen by God because of her PROVED faithfulness. Throughout her whole life she loved God. God knew she would carry out her commission faithfully.

Indeed, accepting the commission changed her entire life as a woman. But only one is supreme in holiness, is God & His Son. Others can be holy to a limited degree, but that does not mean they should be worshipped, does it?
Man was born into sin... up until Jesus was born, since Adam & Eve, noone had been in a perfect condition on the Earth.

Answer 3

1. Your reading a Catholic Bible. The Catholics believe differently than any other religion (as far as I know) about Mary. 2. In reading the Bible, I find NO WHERE that Mary was holy and with no sin. The wording "full of grace" does not mean holy or sinless. Wary was human. She may have been a very good person but being human. she sinned. Mary was forgiven of her sins, her sins were taken away by the grace of Christ 3. The official teaching you point out is the Catholic official teaching. The Lutheran, Baptist, Methodist, etc. etc. differs considerably.

Answer 4

The Virgin Mary was the Immaculate Conception(and can be proven thru scriptue). She was born without the stain of original sin. But that does not mean she did not go thru birthing pains. The punishment of Eve had already be cast. Just as when we baptize a baby, we baptize to wash away the stain of original sin. With Mary she was FULL of GRACE, that means she was born without the original sin.

Answer 5

First of all, I'm not Catholic, but I have been researching "Lost Books of the Bible" Books that were, for various reasons, excluded from the cannon but certainly worthy of study. So I am going to paraphrase from The Protevangelion Chapter 14, verses 9-12
Mary was in the cave, awaiting deliverance and Joseph went to find the mid-wife. When they got there they stood at the entrance of the cave, then a bright cloud overshadowed the cave....but suddenly the cloud became a great light in the cave so that their eyes could not bear it. The light gradually decreased until the infant appeared and sucked the breast of his mother Mary.
Now when I look at my KJV Bible about Jesus' birth, it only mentions that she brought forth the child...or that she was delivered, it says nothing about having gone through the pains of childbirth.
I'm not knocking the Catholics, but there is so much man-made doctrine infused into it that they had to come up with their own version of the Bible to justify some of their beliefs.
Blessed Be.

Answer 6

for God's sake! stop talking all these nonsense! Mary had Jesus Christ because God made her pregnant, which gives the Jews the thought that she is a prostitute. but she is not.

Answer 7

I am sorry I was not able to read a Bible verse stating that Mary had the "pain of child birth" when she delivered Jesus. If you find one please email me. I will appreciate it very much.

Answer 8

The RCC's concept of 'original sin' is a farce. Thus, it's not a bullet-proof assumption and an easy target for questions such as yours. Heck, they even apply 'judo' tactics in arguing that Joseph didn't copulate with her after giving birth to Jesus, and that Jesus' siblings was from Joseph's previous partner.

Answer 9

She was by no means 'immaculate'.

Was Mary herself immaculately conceived, free from original sin when her mother conceived her?

The New Catholic Encyclopedia (1967, Vol. VII, pp. 378-381) acknowledges regarding the origin of the belief: “ . . . the Immaculate Conception is not taught explicitly in Scripture . . . The earliest Church Fathers regarded Mary as holy but not as absolutely sinless. . . . It is impossible to give a precise date when the belief was held as a matter of faith, but by the 8th or 9th century it seems to have been generally admitted. . . . [In 1854 Pope Pius IX defined the dogma] ‘which holds that the most Blessed Virgin Mary was preserved from all stain of original sin in the first instant of her Conception.’” This belief was confirmed by Vatican II (1962-1965).—The Documents of Vatican II (New York, 1966), edited by W. M. Abbott, S.J., p. 88.

The Bible itself says: “Well then, sin entered the world through one man [Adam], and through sin death, and thus death has spread through the whole human race because everyone has sinned.” (Rom. 5:12, JB; italics added.) Does that include Mary? The Bible reports that in accord with the requirement of the Mosaic Law, 40 days after Jesus’ birth Mary offered at the temple in Jerusalem a sin offering for purification from uncleanness. She, too, had inherited sin and imperfection from Adam.—Luke 2:22-24; Lev. 12:1-8.

So you Immaculate Conception believers, explain why the sin-free Mary had to perform the 'sin-offering'?

Answer 10

The "pains of child birth" are not one of our punishments that comes with Original Sin. It's called nature. No more questions asked. But if you have a valid source where you heard that (preferably NOT the Bible, because you shouldn't try to prove everything with the Bible [I could write a whole essay on why]), I'd be happy to look into it.

In Pace Christi,
A.F.

Answer 11

Where's it say she suffered the pains of child birth? Maybe she got a divine epidural.