english grammer?

Question

is there differences between "has become" and "has became"
can you make me some examples.

Answer 1

"has became" is not proper.

became- an action that has been made in the past and is over by now.
has become- an action that was started earlier and continues in the present (or that has consequences in the present).

Notice that "become" is not only the simple present form, but also the past perfect form:
I sing; I sang; I have sung
I become; I became; I have become

Answer 2

became is the past tense of the word
become is more present or future

"he will become a monster"
"he became a monster"

see? you would use became if it were something that happened awhile ago and become for now

Answer 3

"grammar"

"Has became" is not proper English. You may say "became" or "has become". The first tends to be speaking of something in the past. The latter tends to be speaking of something current or ongoing.

Answer 4

"has become" is the present perfect tense of "become", "has became" is wrong as it mixes the present perfect modal "have" with the past tense form "became" of "become", but such a combination doesn't exist - at least not in AE and BE. I assume it could be informal language or a sociolect.

By the way, it is spelled "grammar".

Answer 5

First of all it's English grammar. Secondly, "has became" would never be used. It's just "has become".

Answer 6

How about English spelling? It's spelled grammar.
There's no such thing as "has became". Either "became," or "has become".

Answer 7

The difference is that "has became" is always wrong.

Answer 8

Yes, "has became" is improper English... "became" is past tense, and "become" is participle...

He has become a drunken slob.

I have become weary of the attack.

Answer 9

i has became bad at english!