The Filioque was first used in Spain, not Germany. And it was widely used long before the Great Schism. True is was not added to the Creed until about 1014-1015, but the Church of Rome has always taken its time in making a popular practice or Tradition into 'official' doctrine (for example: the Immaculate Conception).
The change to the creed was only the straw that broke the camel's back. It was not the main reason for the schism of the eleventh century. Nationalistic feeling among the people of the east was the driving force behind the schism. That is why the Church likes to have a universal liturgy - it promotes catholicism (universalism), not nationalism (regionalism).
The difference is incredibly important because it teaches us about the nature of God, who is all Truth. And, of course, I follow the teaching of the Church of Rome - the only church protected by the Holy Spirit from teaching any falsehood. How could you follow any other church?
djmantx, where does the Bible tell us about the procession of the Holy Spirit? If you can show me that, your answer has some merrit.
I didn't think so...
2007-06-07 00:26:31
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answer #1
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answered by infinity 3
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Non Filioque is a good start for the Catholic church to come back to the Mother Orthodox Church.
2007-06-07 07:14:51
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answer #2
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answered by thematofylaks 2
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I think that both sides have a really good argument. I also think that both sides are trying to come to terms with it and realize that they actually believe the same. The orthodox side does think that this 'dilutes' the theology of the Holy Spirit.
2007-06-07 07:35:23
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answer #3
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answered by Daniel F 6
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To a theologian like myself, it's very important. We want the greatest possible understanding of the nature of God.
To the average believer, nah. They have neither the time nor the inclination to be worrying about who proceeds from whom and how. They're busy with the life that the Triune God gave them.
2007-06-07 07:09:21
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answer #4
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answered by Granny Annie 6
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381? Well, If God is all powerful as I know him to be...No man can change his word. We know that within the true word of God is assurances that his word is forever and that his word is truth. God created everything that exist and yet for some reason some believe he is so weak as to let man make a liar out of him.
Serious problems with this theory if the written word of God is the source of our knowledge of him and the word is a lie we are the same as wihtout a God...would an all powerful God allow this? of course not...God's word is the truth and those who love and seek his truth in his word will receive a gift called faith and through faith revelation and a personal relationship with him. If you seek god's truth you will find that the books of moses reflect the same truths as the book of Revelation his word is consitant and his truth is from Genesis to Revelation. The books of Moses are from 1500 BC and reflect the same truths as today.
2007-06-07 07:06:03
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answer #5
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answered by djmantx 7
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Totally unimportant.
It is an argument on the same scale as an insect trying to describe the thought process of human beings.
2007-06-07 07:02:50
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Well, it looks like you answered your own question.
Have a nice day.
2007-06-07 07:01:38
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answer #7
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answered by Barbra 6
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Great summary of the history of how this issue has been decided. I know you could have said more. Thanks.
2007-06-07 07:07:07
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answer #8
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answered by jaicee 6
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