(1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? The Bible does not specifically say why God allowed polygamy. The best anyone can do is “informed” speculation. There are a few key items to consider. First, there has always been more women in the world than men. Current statistics show that approximately 50.5% of the world population are women, with men being 49.5%. Assuming the same percentages in ancient times, and multiplied by millions of people, there would be tens of thousands more women than men. Second, warfare in ancient times was especially brutal, with an incredibly high rate of fatality. This would have resulted in an even greater percentage of women to men. Third, due to the patriarchal societies, it was nearly impossible for a woman to provide for herself. Women were often uneducated and untrained. Women relied on their fathers, brothers, and husbands for provision and protection. Unmarried women were often subjected to prostitution and slavery. Fourth, the significant difference between the number of women and men would have left many, many women in an undesirable situation (to say the least).
So, it seems that God allowed polygamy to protect and provide for the women who could not find a husband otherwise. A man would take multiple wives, and serve as the provider and protector of all of them. While definitely not ideal, living in a polygamist household was far better than the alternatives: prostitution, slavery, starvation, etc. In addition to the protection / provision factor, polygamy enabled a much faster expansion of humanity, fulfilling God’s command to “be fruitful and multiply, fill the earth” (Genesis 9:7). Men are capable of impregnating multiple women in the same time period…causing humanity to grow much faster than if each man was only able to produce one child each year. Again, these are only “informed” speculations.
(2) How does God view polygamy today? The Bible says that God’s original intention was for one man to be married to only one woman, “For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife (not wives); and they shall become one flesh (not multiple fleshes)” (Genesis 2:24). We see in Deuteronomy 17:14-20, that the kings were not supposed to multiply wives. This most definitely puts Solomon in direct disobedience against the Lord.
In the New Testament, 1 Timothy 3:2, 12 and Titus 1:6 give “the husband of one wife” in a list of qualifications for spiritual leadership. While these qualifications are only specifically for positions of spiritual leadership, they apply equally to all Christians. Should not all Christians be “above reproach...temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, not given to drunkenness, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, not a lover of money” (1 Timothy 3:2-4)? If we are called to be holy (1 Peter 1:16), and if these standards are holy for elders and deacons, then they are holy for all. Ephesians 5:22-33, speaking of the relationship between husbands and wives, when referring to a husband (singular) always also refers to a wife (singular). “…for the husband is the head of the wife (singular) … He who loves his wife (singular) loves himself. For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife (singular), and the two will become one flesh … each one of you also must love his wife (singular) as he loves himself, and the wife (singular) must respect her husband.” There is absolutely no allowance for polygamy for followers of Jesus Christ.
(3) Why did it change? It is not as much God disallowing something He previously allowed as it is God restoring marriage to His original intent. According to Genesis 2:24, polygamy was not God’s original intent. God seems to have allowed polygamy to solve a problem…but it was God’s desire for the problem never to have occurred. In most modern societies, there is absolutely no need for polygamy. In most cultures today, women are able to provide for and protect themselves – removing the only “positive” aspect of polygamy. Are there some instances in which the allowance for polygamy would still apply today? Perhaps…but it is unfathomable that there would be no other possible solution. It is our firm belief that polygamy does not honor the intent and sanctity of marriage – and most importantly – does not honor God.
Recommended Resource: Bible Answers for Almost all Your Questions by Elmer Towns.
2007-06-06 13:06:20
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answer #1
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answered by Freedom 7
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Why do you assume that there were no plural marriages in the New Testament? Just cause they're not mentioned?
Do you honestly think that, just because Jesus Christ was there, that everyone knew He was the Christ, and no one ever did anything that they didn't do in the Old Testament?
One of the Laws of Moses was that, if a man died, and left his wife a widow, and they had NO sons, or children, that the man's brother must marry her and raise sons up to his dead brother. Now, there is no provision in the law taht says only if the brother is still single, or only if there is a single brother. I wonder how many men had to marry their dead brother's wives, and had three or four brothers die, so had three or four extra wives?
If I asked you for any passage of the New Testament that specifically said "NO one is practicing polygamy at this point in time" you would never find it.
2007-06-06 13:42:25
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answer #2
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answered by mormon_4_jesus 7
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Considering there has been anti-immigrant discrimination on this nation for its entire existence. In the 19th century, a number of Catholics began pouring into the country from ireland, Germany, and Italy, and the WASPs in cost began making up whatever they could to slander the RCC on top of the traditional "they's takin' my JAWB!!!" spiel. As for anti-Catholicism, that is been happening seeing that the Virginia manufacturer constitution banned "popish recusants" in 1607. It can be traced back to the fact that the hugely general queen Elizabeth 1 used to be raised in her father's new church and used to be vehemently anti-Catholic. Add in some understandable misconceptions concerning the existence of so many standard Mary prayers--the Ave Maria, the Memorare of St. Bernard, the Hail Holy Queen--and you could have got a recipe for stupid. Oddly adequate, none of the anti-Catholic stuff I've heard from Protestants has even bothered to say the large factor the RCC sincerely did unsuitable--the baby sexual abuse scandal. You'd feel in the event that they rather wanted to scare individuals far from the RCC, that may be the excellent method to do it.
2016-08-11 15:33:35
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answer #3
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answered by burgas 4
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D HOLY BIBLE Does Not Govern That U Cant Hav more Than 1 Wife but As U Know tat Its Against D Godly Nature To Marry More Than Once...Thus its Not Good To marry More Than Once.
Rgds,
HARRY/VISHAL
2007-06-06 13:06:09
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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I still inquire about this. All I can say is that God ALWAYS intended it to be one man and one woman. Otherwise, He would've made other women along with Eve. Now, like you said, many times in the OT we see plural marriages and Kings with harems. Look at the troubles it brought them. I don't think that God appreciated their distortion of His created relationship and they did pay penalties for carrying on that distortion.
2007-06-06 13:08:06
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answer #5
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answered by ScottyJae 5
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via fact there has been anti-immigrant discrimination in this united states for its entire existence. interior the nineteenth century, an incredible style of Catholics began pouring into the rustic from eire, Germany, and Italy, and the WASPs in fee began making up regardless of they might to slander the RCC on proper of the widely used "they's takin' my JAWB!!!" spiel. As for anti-Catholicism, it is been occurring via fact the Virginia company shape banned "popish recusants" in 1607. it fairly is traced back to the undeniable fact that the surprisingly frequently occurring queen Elizabeth a million became raised in her father's new church and became vehemently anti-Catholic. upload in some comprehensible misconceptions with regard to the existence of maximum of frequently occurring Mary prayers--the Ave Maria, the Memorare of St. Bernard, the Hail Holy Queen--and you have have been given a recipe for stupid. Oddly sufficient, not one of the anti-Catholic stuff i've got heard from Protestants has even stricken to indicate the great ingredient the RCC actual did incorrect--the youngster sexual abuse scandal. you may think of in the event that they actually had to scare human beings faraway from the RCC, that could be the appropriate thank you to do it.
2016-11-07 19:09:12
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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It was always God's plan for one man and one woman. Even in the OT. It was sinful to have multiple wifes. This link may interest you.
http://www.biblebb.com/files/macqa/70-1-11.htm
2007-06-06 13:10:30
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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In First or Second Timoththy 3:16 I believe. It says that a pastor should be the spouse of one wife.
2007-06-06 13:05:59
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answer #8
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answered by wonderfulcounselorhealer 2
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I guess when people saw that God was indeed using women (Esther, Deborah, Mariam) to do great things, they realized their error. after all, Lamech (Cain's son and a murderer himself) was the first polygamist (Genesis 4:19-25). who wants to be like him?
Paul said a pastor should be the husband of one wife. since the pastor is supposed to be the prime present example we ought to follow, that implies mem must have one wife.
2007-06-06 13:17:32
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answer #9
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answered by Hey, Ray 6
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