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In Mark 15:34, just before he dies, Jesus says, "My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?"

Jesus is supposed to have never sinned, ever, right? He's not even capable of sin, right? Well, how is this not a sin?

God didn't forsake Jesus, did He? God loved Jesus as His Son, and only wanted Jesus to go redeem all the sinners, and then come back on up to Heaven. So when Jesus said He was forsaken, at the very least, this was a lie.

And think about the context! The Guy who has been claiming to be the Son of God saying He was forksaken by God? That will rattle your faith. So even beyond it being a lie, he could have made all those people think that God was the type to forsake you upon death.

Please don't respond just to say, "See, Christianity doesn't make any sense and Christians are all idiots." I want honest responses from Christians or people who seriously study this sort of thing.

2007-06-06 05:15:43 · 20 answers · asked by ? 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

20 answers

When Jesus said that he was talking about the separation he felt when God left him. That was the whole purpose after all. If God didn't leave Jesus, the prophesies of the Prophets would be vain!

2007-06-06 05:30:59 · answer #1 · answered by meamy 3 · 1 1

This is exactly why I don't like Christians, because they don't understand the words written in their own bible. And I'm not a Christian, and I don't "study" this sort of thing, but I have some resources which have helped me understand it.
This is hard to explain and it'll be even harder for you to understand, but this Jesus is simply showing the human in himself. Jesus knew there was no coming back. This was the end, the final moment, the moment of enlightenment. There will be nothing after this, Jesus will disappear. Just like when a raindrop falls into the ocean. So out of fear, he simply said, "My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?" He isn't telling God that He has forsaken Him. There's no time for that. When you fall into the ocean there's no point of speaking to anyone, because there will be no one to reply to. You won't be there anymore. And you can't hold grudges after you're dead, because you're not there anymore, you don't exist. And no one can hold grudges against you either for the same reason, because you don't exist anymore. So Jesus simply said this out of fear. Although he knew that there's no coming back, no matter how much you were afraid, you couldn't come back. So this is simply an exclamation. "My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?"

2007-06-06 05:39:04 · answer #2 · answered by Maus 7 · 0 2

In those days if you spoke the beginning of a verse or a book you were invoking the entire meaning of that book or verse. So if you said "in the beginning...." you were invoking the entire meaning of the Bible. Jesus was doing the same thing with psalm 22. If you read that psalm you will realize that Jesus' message was actually one of great hope. People reading the bible during those times would have understood this immediately.

2007-06-06 05:29:40 · answer #3 · answered by Thom 5 · 3 0

No, I don't think Jesus sinned when he said those words.

Most of us at one time or another felt like God has left us when we were dealing with a particular hard problem.

Jesus was both God and Man. he had the same feelings that we do. He felt compassion, pain, joy, love, and betrayal. It would only be natural for him to feel like God left him on the cross.

But we all know how the story ends. and it has a happy ending!! And that is something we can all look forward too. Cause no matter how dark it gets for us, and when we feel like god has left us, we know that HE truly is there for us at all times. Even when it doesn't seem like it.

hope this helps.

2007-06-06 05:25:51 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

The ability to do right or to do wrong is within all humans. Jesus, as a human, could have chosen to sin. Just like Adam did.

God is the judge of who sins or not. If Jesus in any way had sinned, God would had determined that and said so. He didn't. On the contrary he found Jesus completely faithful.

When on the stake, Jesus cried: "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"

Upon reading these words at Matthew 27:46 or Mark 15:34, some have concluded that when Jesus faced a painful death, his confidence in God wavered.

While none of us today can know with certainty all that was involved in Jesus' crying out as he did, we can note two likely motives.

Jesus was well aware that he would have to "go to Jerusalem and suffer many things . . . , and be killed, and on the third day be raised up." (Matthew 16:21)

Jesus knew in advance "what sort of death he was about to die," that is, death by impalement. (John 12:32, 33) He was sure, too, that on the third day he would be raised up. How, then, could Jesus say that God had forsaken him?

First, he could have meant it in the sense that God had taken away protection from his Son so that Jesus' integrity would be tested to the limit, a painful and shameful death.

But God's releasing of Jesus to the wrath of enemies directed by Satan did not indicate total abandonment. God continued to show affection for Jesus, as proved on the third day when He raised his Son, which Jesus had known would occur.-Acts 2:31-36; 10:40; 17:31.

Connected to this a likely second reason for Jesus' utterance while on the stake, that by using these words he could fulfill a prophetic indication about the Messiah.

Hours earlier Jesus told the apostles that things would happen "just as it is written concerning him." (Matthew 26:24; Mark 14:21) Yes, he wanted to carry out the things that were written, including things in Psalm 22.

You may find it interesting to compare Psalm 22:7, 8-Matthew 27:39, 43; Psalm 22:15-John 19:28, 29; Psalm 22:16-Mark 15:25 and John 20:27; Psalm 22:18-Matthew 27:35.

Psalm 22, which gave so many prophetic indications of the Messiah's experiences, begins: "My God, my God, why have you left me?" Hence, when Jesus cried out as he did, he was adding to the record of prophecies that he fulfilled.-Luke 24:44.

The psalmist did not believe that his God had simply rejected or abandoned him, for David went on to say that he would 'declare God's name to his brothers,' and he urged others to praise God. (Psalm 22:22, 23) Similarly, Jesus, who knew Psalm 22 well, also had reason for confidence that his Father still approved of him and loved him, despite what God allowed him to experience on the stake.

2007-06-06 05:45:19 · answer #5 · answered by volunteer teacher 6 · 0 3

No, He didn't sin, or lie. The sins of the world, including mine and yours, were taken on to the cross by Jesus, and those sins separated Him from God, because sin always separates one from God. All people are sinners and are separated from God because of it, unless they accept what Jesus did on the cross for them personally, and they receive Him as their Savior. Through His atoning work on the cross, all can have their sins forgiven and be reconciled to God. To reject this means separation from God in this life, and for eternity.

Edit: To volunteer teacher below: The two "motives" you give had already occured by the time Jesus spoke those words to God. He was already on the cross. If I'm reading it right, your whole answer makes no sense.

2007-06-06 05:37:23 · answer #6 · answered by beano™ 6 · 1 2

Simple answer: “And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?” (Matthew 27:46). This cry is a fulfillment of Psalm 22:1, one of many parallels between that psalm and the specific events of the crucifixion.

2007-06-06 05:23:09 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

Jesus is the son of God - while he stated Father why have you ever forsaken me it incredibly is simply by fact Jesus replaced into nevertheless a guy that his father God had allowed to die for the sins of guy for the unbelieving. God replaced into grieving i've got faith seeing his son undergo the pass. Jesus replaced into attempting to his father to shop him it incredibly is in simple terms what he did undergo in ideas Jesus stated father forgive them for they no no longer what they do. it incredibly is while he knew he might quickly be together with his Heavenly Father quickly. while he ascended to his father. subsequently is God the father, God the Son, God the Holy Spirit it incredibly is the Trinity 3 in one continuously.

2017-01-10 16:17:21 · answer #8 · answered by helfer 3 · 0 0

There was no sin involved.
Jesus (PBUH), was quoting from the Old Testament.
That is all they had in those times,and it was from
Psalm 22.
Jesus (PBUH), was quoting Psalms, which are Praises directed to God.

Nice question! I hope this has been a help!

2007-06-06 05:27:11 · answer #9 · answered by WillRogerswannabe 7 · 0 1

In Jesus darkest moment he felt like many of us when we find ourselves in stuck in serious trouble. Jesus being man was in agony but later realized that God had not left him when he said "IT IS FINISHED." Jesus must of felt Gods holy presence during this time and realized he was never along.
That is something we all need to remember when we are stuck in a difficult situation. Was it sin, NO...

2007-06-06 05:33:36 · answer #10 · answered by Commander 6 · 0 2

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