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What does the Bible mean when Jesus said :" Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil." Matthew 5:17 KJV.

2007-06-06 03:04:47 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

17 answers

Christ did not come to destroy God's Law (the Decalogue), but to fulfill the prophecies that the Mosaic Laws of sacrifice pointed to. After Christ, we no longer need to slaughter a lamb as He was our Lamb...after Christ, we no longer need a human priest as a mediator; He is our High Priest after the order of Melchizedek in heaven, mediating to the Father on our behalf; the reason Jesus instructed us to pray to the Father in His name.

2007-06-06 03:28:34 · answer #1 · answered by Jalapinomex 5 · 2 0

Jesus died perfect, so if he NOT upheld the 10 commandments, then he wouldn't have been perfect at his death.
He fulfilled the law by doing exactly that, upholding it. The Mosaic Law was fulfilled when someone did not sin, which Christ did not.

side note: some of the pharisees tried to convict him of THEIR burdensome additions to the laws, but the true meanings of the 613 laws were obeyed by Christ.

He summed up all 613 laws in 2 new commands:
Love God, and Love your neighbor. By obeying those 2 commands, all else is accomplished.

2007-06-06 03:19:36 · answer #2 · answered by Carol D 5 · 0 0

Jesus did very much obey the Law Covenant while he lived, to the letter.

He was accused of not doing so, but that can be shown to be lies his enemies claimed falsely.

Your second question is in regard to something bigger, not just the Law Covenant as you may verify for yourself if you go beyond Matthew!

Because the quote is somewhat long it has been put in the source box. Please read it and also read this page about the Law Covenant and Christians:
http://bythebible.page.tl/Christians-Under-Law-Covenant-f-.htm

It is a fact that those who claim that Christians must obey the Law Covenant have nullified Christ's ransom and God's provision for the forgiveness for sins. Therefore these are mislead and part of the deceivers, and perhaps being deceived themselves?

2007-06-06 03:23:08 · answer #3 · answered by Fuzzy 7 · 0 0

He fulfilled the calling for the Messiah. We are not "bound" by the law anymore in that we dont have to sacrifice a lamb and live without sin to be in relationship with our Heavenly Father; Jesus was the ultimate sacrifice. His life fullfilled the old covenant and started a new covenant with us based on grace. Just thinking about what He did makes me want to jump up and down and praise Him, and I am sitting here at work!

2007-06-06 03:19:52 · answer #4 · answered by Jesse G 1 · 0 0

Yes he did. And that passage means that he was telling everyone on earth that he was trying to show them the right way and to uphold the laws his father set fourth. He had to say this because the Jews and others thought he was lying and trying to destroy Gods words by claiming he was God's son. They thought he was lying and was actually trying to go against God's words. Which of course was a lie.

2007-06-06 03:10:24 · answer #5 · answered by ? 2 · 2 0

It means what it says. Jesus came to fulfill the law.

2007-06-06 03:11:22 · answer #6 · answered by HAND 5 · 0 0

Christ was admonishing Christians that civil law was binding to them as well as canon.

His existence was perfect and without blemish that he could become The Lamb of God and atone for the sins of mankind that blood sacrifice would no longer be required as the prophets of the Old Testament wrote.

All God now wants from us is our love.

2007-06-06 03:11:10 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

He came to be the example for us in human form. He came to fulfill the law and to show that it could be done so HE would be the perfect sacrifice. We are all sinners and we cant keep the law but Jesus did. If he didnt we would be all hell bond

2007-06-06 03:11:01 · answer #8 · answered by humble servant 2 · 2 0

Christ died with complete integrity, that is without any sin. (1Pet 2:22)

This is further shown in that God gave him an exalted position in heaven. (Php 2:8,9)

The law was given to the Israelites to remind them of their sinful state and their need for a Redeemer. The law was preparing them for that one. When he came and was put to death, the law had fulfilled it's purpose and was replaced with Christ's law. (Ga 3:24,25;Col 2:14)

2007-06-06 03:36:10 · answer #9 · answered by volunteer teacher 6 · 0 0

Christ fufilled the law because Christ is the only sinless human that ever lived on earth. The rest of us are born in sin because of the fall in the Garden of Eden.

2007-06-06 03:12:59 · answer #10 · answered by Jeancommunicates 7 · 0 0

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