check my other question for more details.
2007-06-05 13:16:51 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
use it to get pregnant obviously..............
2007-06-05 13:17:14 · update #1
ITS NOT FOR REAL. JUST ASKING ABOUT LEGAL ISSUES!!!!!!!!!!!!!
"maybe" a girl could suck a guy off after he refuses sex, then inseminate herself with a turkey baster..............
just want to know where the bloke would stand in this situation
2007-06-05 13:22:32 · update #2
Jeez - aren't people literal on this site! He's asking a hypothetical question, people!
Actually, I don't think the guy would stand a chance legally - he's the child's father, end of story. I don't even think he could claim assault, cos he was presumably willing to be sucked off.
However, if she drugged him, then pinched his sperm, that would probably be a different matter. I can't believe that would be legal.
Actually, I think it's a pretty good question you've asked.
2007-06-05 13:32:02 · answer #1 · answered by Hello Dave 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I read your other question, and I have to say, very interesting question.
To address your question about someone using it without permission, well, if it was in the act of a sexual act, like fellatio, then permission may have been granted by the act of sex itself, a man cannot assume that a woman will ingest the material, or use a turkey baster to conceive.
So, the act may have been the only permission needed.
I read a awhile ago, a couple wanted to have children, it was a female / female couple, and they asked a friend to donate the semen to assist them, the gentleman signed over all parental rights, and the court reversed that. So I don't see a difference if a woman took the material from her mouth and used it for other then what the gentleman though it was intended.
Anything is possible in this day and age.
Hope this answers your question!
2007-06-05 14:01:56 · answer #2 · answered by DuSteDShaDoW 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I suppose it might be possible to get an amount of semen from a discarded condom after intercourse, and later use it for artificial insemination.
If a woman did do that and became pregnant, the male would have to support the child. In a support hearing, the paternity could be proven by either a blood test or DNA test.
It is not illegal to do that, but I think it is patently unethical.
2007-06-05 15:51:11 · answer #3 · answered by Mark 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Chastity has no honor. Civil Law has removed the implications of conceiving bastard children, by a turkey baster no less, and has permitted immoral and unethical behavior to be rewarded in spite of an unwilling participant. Also, women today are allowed to declare, by deception, their husbands or boyfriends fathers of children whom share no dna of his at all and when this fraud is discovered he is forced, by court order, into involuntary servitude until that child is 18. On another note, a single unwed mother could place ANY mans name on that state document called a birth certificate and if enough time passes, without objection, he to will bare the burden of her deception. There is no punishment for any single unwed mother who falsely accuses another person of parenthood, only reward.
How many women are faced with this kind of burden done to them by a man?
Not many, I’m sure.
The answer is NO- it is not illegal to use someone else’s sperm without their permission.
Turkey Baste away, women.
So sad so sad
2007-06-05 15:14:12 · answer #4 · answered by commonlaw 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think it is legal, but I bet it isn't rare! You'd just get a used condom from the bin when the guys fast asleep and poke it up... eugh! I suppose it must be illegal, but only a very nasty woman would do it, my boyfriend would murder me if I attempted a stunt like that!!! And what if the girl has a son, and the guy never finds out, then the guy one day has a daughter, and then son and daughter meet up and get it on....... what if it's happened already? Certainly explain a lot of the folk on Big Brother!
2007-06-05 20:22:56 · answer #5 · answered by floppity 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is illegal (and immoral) to use someone's sperm without their permission, not that that makes much of a difference. Not so long ago, there was a date rape case where a woman drugged a guy and then had sex with him. Needless to say, he was responsible for the child support payments.
Isn't it great being a privileged male? :)
2007-06-05 13:52:45 · answer #6 · answered by Máirtín 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
James-I doubt it. How did the woman get the sperm? The man must have given it to her. The only way you could steal sperm would be from a sperm bank and that would be a crime, of course.
2007-06-05 13:20:46 · answer #7 · answered by David M 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's stealing, which is illegal. AND if the woman becomes impregnated from the stolen sperm, that can be deemed as kidnapping.
2007-06-05 13:21:28 · answer #8 · answered by Ivana Cracker 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is -unless you use a sperm bank.How would you accomplish this anyway???Your liable for any sperm that gets implanted in a female when you were there.LOL
2007-06-05 13:22:54 · answer #9 · answered by dymond 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes i think it would be illegal, but how would the man prove that it was taken like that.
2007-06-05 19:35:04 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋