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This is Jesus speaking about Himself:

John 5:31 If I testify about myself, my testimony is not valid.

John 8:14 Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid.

2007-06-04 15:58:18 · 13 answers · asked by ? 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Actually, I was hoping for a few Christians to explain it.

2007-06-04 16:03:58 · update #1

13 answers

at first glance it appears it is conflicting

but when you shut your eyes and begin to pray like a loon, suddenly you are moved by the spirit and you forget what you saw and your faith is once again based on ignorance

2007-06-04 16:01:28 · answer #1 · answered by voice_of_reason 6 · 2 3

First of all, you must realize that 5:31 is a continuation of a response to the Jews who sought to kill Him because they said that He made Himself equal to God. 5:31 is a reference to the Jewish law which stated that all testimony concerning an event or a fact must be established in the mouths of 2 or 3 witnesses (Deuteronomy 17:6 and 19:15). By making this statement to the Jews, He continues in verses 32-35 to show that the second witness of who He (Jesus) really was John the Baptist (Matthew ch. 3&4; Mark 1:2-11; Luke 3:3-23 & John 1:19-34).
Now concerning 8:14; this is Jesus' response to the Pharisees accusation about what He said concerning Himself in verse 12. To the Jew, light was an idea that represented God and His ways. But Jesus responds to them by letting them know that He knows who He is and where He came from and He continues by saying that God (Father) bears witness of Him (vs. 18; this was a reference to many events including His baptism, His power over nature, His resurrection and others).

2007-06-04 16:43:51 · answer #2 · answered by passmanjames 3 · 0 0

sometimes verses like these are contradictory when taken out of context. try readinmg whats around them, and it might make more sense then. if you look at the rest of the section (john 5) jesus is more saying that people seem only to believe once another has said it, and not just directly from jesus himself. then in chapter 8 he is saying that even if there is no second witness, what he's saying is still true, whether or not people beleive it. say for example, someone wins an insainly cool prize on a game show. they tell you, but you hezitate to believe them until someonme else confirms the story. just because you didn't trust what the person was saying didn't make it any less true. this is what Jesus was saying in these passages.

~Aimee Hein

2007-06-04 16:11:30 · answer #3 · answered by bleh... 1 · 1 0

Right answer:
John 5:31, I simply means " I can do nothing on my own authority, I judge only as od tells me, so my judgement is right, because I am not tryoing to do what I want, but only what He who sent me wants.

In John 8:14, Jesus spoke to the pharises, (a menber of ancient jewish sect that emphasized strict interpretation of the Mosaic law) he said, " I am the light of the world, however follows me will have the light of life and will never walk in darkarness." The pharisees disagreed with him and said " now you are testifying on your own behalf, what you say proves nothing"
Jesus answred them and say " Even though I do testify on my own behald, what I say is true, because I know where I came from and where I am going"
Jesus is simply explaining the pharisees that God sent him to preach the gospel.

2007-06-04 16:03:39 · answer #4 · answered by dimitri 3 · 1 0

Although I'm a big fan of biblical contradiction, this one is taken out of context. There's no contradiction here.

John 5:31- 40 (NIV):

"If I testify about myself, my testimony is not valid. There is another who testifies in my favor, and I know that his testimony about me is valid. You have sent to John and he has testified to the truth. Not that I accept human testimony; but I mention it that you may be saved. John was a lamp that burned and gave light, and you chose for a time to enjoy his light. I have testimony weightier than that of John. For the very work that the Father has given me to finish, and which I am doing, testifies that the Father has sent me. And the Father who sent me has himself testified concerning me. You have never heard his voice nor seen his form, nor does his word dwell in you, for you do not believe the one he sent. You diligently study the Scriptures because you think that by them you possess eternal life. These are the Scriptures that testify about me, yet you refuse to come to me to have life.

Jesus is clearly saying that people should not believe him simply because he said to. The testimony of one man is not compelling evidence. He states that people should believe him because God testified for him through the scriptures.

John 8:12-18 (NIV)
When Jesus spoke again to the people, he said, "I am the light of the world. Whoever follows me will never walk in darkness, but will have the light of life." The Pharisees challenged him, "Here you are, appearing as your own witness; your testimony is not valid." Jesus answered, "Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid, for I know where I came from and where I am going. But you have no idea where I come from or where I am going. You judge by human standards; I pass judgment on no one. But if I do judge, my decisions are right, because I am not alone. I stand with the Father, who sent me. In your own Law it is written that the testimony of two men is valid. I am one who testifies for myself; my other witness is the Father, who sent me."

Here, Jesus is saying the same thing. The Pharisees claim that Jesus' testimony is not valid, since he is one man testifying about himself. Jesus responds that his testimony is substantiated by the testimony of God.

2007-06-04 16:19:12 · answer #5 · answered by marbledog 6 · 1 0

Not much point in giving an answer to a self proclaimed "heathen" who seems intent on baiting Christians.

Threre is no contradiction, read the verses in context with the verses around them. Even by themselves there is no contraditon, since in 5:31 He says that if He witnesses about Himself His witness is invalid, so He is not going to do it; and in 8:14 He is kinda sarcastically saying to the pharasees that "even if I testify", in other words He is telling them exactly what it says in 5:31.

I know you understand scarcasim.

I also know that you do not understand the Bible. Perhaps you could explain this verse?

Exodus 22:18 Thou shalt not suffer a witch to live.

2007-06-04 16:27:20 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

On John 5:31
I. He sets aside his own testimony of himself (v. 31): "If I bear witness of myself, though it is infallibly true (ch. 8:14), yet, according to the common rule of judgment among men, you will not admit it as legal proof, nor allow it to be given in evidence.’’ Now, 1. This reflects reproach upon the sons of men, and their veracity and integrity. Surely we may say deliberately, what David said in haste, All men are liars, else it would never have been such a received maxim that a man’s testimony of himself is suspicious, and not to be relied on; it is a sign that self-love is stronger than the love of truth. And yet, 2. It reflects honour on the Son of God, and bespeaks his wonderful condescension, that, though he is the faithful witness, the truth itself, who may challenge to be credited upon his honour, and his own single testimony, yet he is pleased to waive his privilege, and, for the confirmation of our faith, refers himself to his vouchers, that we may have full satisfaction.

Jesus was saying that even though legal courts do not allow a witness's testimony about his own conduct to be counted in a courtroom (would you trust a suspected felon if he told you "I didn't do it!" or would you want more evidence?), his testimony is valid and should be regarded as such because he is God and he cannot lie.

But even so, Jesus submits to human understanding and human proceedings when he then proceeds to show that there are other witnesses to who he is: the Father, John the Baptist, Jesus's own miracles, and the Old Testament have all borne witness to his deity and his mission.

I hope that makes sense?

2007-06-04 16:12:54 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

John 5:31
Jesus was not sent here to explain about himself.

John 8:14
He was defending himself against the Pharisees questions.

Get A Grip.

2007-06-04 16:09:03 · answer #8 · answered by Get A Grip 6 · 0 0

The first he was talking in a legal sense. But the second he was talking about the fact that he was more than a man.

2007-06-04 16:10:08 · answer #9 · answered by Steve Amato 6 · 0 0

I think that he is saying that people won't believe unless someone else says so. Things are more believable second hand. He might be accused of boasting.

2007-06-04 16:01:54 · answer #10 · answered by jingersnaps 3 · 0 0

It means that the Bible needed fewer writers and more editors

2007-06-04 16:04:16 · answer #11 · answered by Experto Credo 7 · 0 1

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