<Religious Teachers only>: Do you think the doctrine of "UNIVERSALISM" can be biblically proven?

Question

What is your understanding of this particular view?

Answer 1

It rips Biblical Christianity to shreds. What would be the basis? That Christ's blood covered EVERYONE? Or that Christ's blood is not required?

I'll answer in a minute--

God purposed to redeem a certain people and not others
1Chr 17:20-21; Mat 22:14; 1Pet 2:8-9

1.It is for these in particular that Christ gave his life
Isa 53:10-11; Mat 1:21; John 6:35-40; John 10:3-4, 11, 14-15; Act 20:28; Eph 5:25 [we are commanded to love our wives in the same way that Christ loved the church and gave himself for it; therefore, if Christ loved and gave himself for all people in the same way, we are commanded to love all women in the same way that we love our wives]; Heb 2:17; Heb 9:15

2.It is for these in particular that Christ intercedes
John 17:1-2; John 17:6-12; John 17:20-21, 24-26; Rom 8:34

3.The people for whom Christ intercedes are the same as the people for whom he offered himself up as a sacrifice
Heb 7:24-27; Heb 9:12 [note context, in which entering into the holy place is explicitly for the purpose of intercession], 24-28 [For a fuller understanding of the indissoluble connection between sacrifice and intercession, read Hebrews chapters 7-10]

Finally, the atonement of Christ is effective

1.To justify
Isa 53:11 [the single effective cause of justification in view here is the bearing of iniquities; all whose iniquities Christ bore must be justified]; Rom 8:34 [the argument here is that the fact of Christ's death, resurrection, and intercession is in itself an incontrovertibly effective reason for non-condemnation; if this verse is true, then no one for whom Christ died and was raised to intercede may be condemned]

2.To redeem and cleanse from sins
Eph 5:25-27; Tit 2:14

3.To propitiate the Father
1John 2:2 [“propitiation” means “the turning away or appeasement of wrath”; therefore, by definition, the Father has no more wrath against those whose sins have been propitiated]; 1John 4:10

4.To raise to new life
2Cor 5:14-15 [the argument is a simple “if/then” proposition: “if” Christ died for someone, “then,” with no other conditions, that person died with him and was raised again]; 1Pet 3:18
[See also, “Jesus' death purchased for his people a new heart; – faith; – repentance”. Jesus died in order to establish the New Covenant (Mat. 26:26-29, etc.); the New Covenant promised faith, repentance and knowledge of God (Jer. 31:33-34, Ez. 36:26-27, etc.); therefore, Jesus died in order to provide faith, repentance, and knowledge of God, as the fulfillment of a unilateral promise. This means that his death had a definite purpose which was intended for some and not others. His death effectively purchased faith; not all have faith; and so his death had an effective intent that was limited to certain persons.]

And for those who LOVE to pull John 3:16--

Those whom God purposed to redeem include all who believe

It's that easy.

Answer 2

If all would be saved, why did Christ mention "weeping and gnashing of teeth" and why did Christ teach hell in His teaching of the Kingdom of God.

Isaiah in his future glory of Zion Isaiah 60:12
For the nation and the kingdom that will not serve thee shall perish;
yea, those nations shall be utterly wasted.

Romans 11:25-33
"and so all Israel shall be saved." National salvation will come to Israel. This is the ultimate fulfillment of the new covenant and will be realized when Jesus returns to the earth to set up His Kingdom. Paul weaves together Psalm 14:7, Isaiah 59:20, 21 and Jeremiah 3l:31 to show that he understood the Old Testament literally and that the Old Testament prophesied Israel's deliverance from sin. God cannot do otherwise because of His promises to the fathrs and His unconditional covenants. God has set Israel aside temporarily for the sake of the Gentiles, but He has not forgotten them because of His promise to their fathers. When God is finished with the Gentiles He will reinstate Israel. Israel was set aside because of unbelief. The Gentiles have favor because of their belief. The Gentiles should not be proud but realize that they can be set aside and Israel grafted in again. This is precisely what God will do and all Israel will be saved.

Answer 3

I feel very sorry for people that have nee duped by

this very Catholic mistake. The doctrine IS Christ and

Him crucified ( 1Cor 15) and if any man preach any other

doctrine even an angel in heaven let him be accursed

(Gal 1:8)

Answer 4

There is a hell and there will be punishment for the unfaithful
in Jesus Christ.

God Bless

Answer 5

Universalism states that the bible is not the only source of wisdom, you won't ever hear that in the bible.