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Star This Question if it gives you chance to talk about the CanonicalScriptures.

Biblical English is Great ! I'm a Bible-fan' & learnt a lot by studying The Bible.

To me, this Biblical Saying, 'The Wages Of Sin IS Death' is Perplexing in its Message & Grammar!

Will anyone explain & Justify? I'm sure 'The Bible' is Right!

2007-06-04 07:11:23 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

17 answers

The verb is actually not there in the greek. But as for it's translation into English, singular is appropriate given that "wages of sin" is a collective noun. "a collective noun takes a singular verb when it refers to the collection considered as a whole", given also the "death" is singular it makes sense to use "is" rather than "are".

2007-06-04 10:49:45 · answer #1 · answered by Steve Amato 6 · 0 0

It's a case of archaic English. At the time of the King James translation, the predicate noun - in this case, "death" - sometimes took priority over the subject noun - in this case, "wages." Today we would say "The wages of sin are death," giving priority to the subject noun.

But most Christians on here apparently don't even understand that this is a simple issue of grammar. "IS meaning it is not left for interpretation. IS is definitive," says one girl - as if Paul might have written "It's possible that the wages of sin might be death," but decided to punch home the point?

As for the "message," well, obviously it's the idea that the "Original Sin" of Adam and Eve earned the penalty of death for the human race, just as Christ's sacrifice redeemed us from death, etc. Not that I personally believe any of this drivel.

I wish I could make you understand that when you say "I'm sure 'The Bible' is Right!," you're only cordoning yourself off from the truth, by predetermining that truth must correspond with Scripture as you understand it. It's really exactly as if I declared that the "Arabian Nights" was infallible, and that whenever reality appeared not to jibe, reality was incorrect! But this is another topic.

2007-06-04 07:16:20 · answer #2 · answered by jonjon418 6 · 1 0

It's a mixed and tangled translation to English from the original Hebrew(?). Read it this way, "The [subject] is death. That keeps it singular to agree with the verb tense. The subject however appears to be plural, "wages". I believe that the word wages probably has evolved and at one time in whatever language it was understood that no matter what you do to sin, you get the death penalty from God. It's another one of the ''Fear Factors" the early priests incorporated to keep the unwashed multitudes in line. Taking the Bible at its exact wording will often need a translation. Consider that this is probably the King James Version (pay attention to that last word--"version") and it has modified what could be done to put this in Old English. See if you can find one of the newer "friendly" translations for the modern world and see what that was probably changed to read.

2007-06-04 16:34:21 · answer #3 · answered by Jim N 3 · 0 0

God set up a system in which people have the right to make moral choices, but then they have to live with the consequences of their choices.

When they make good, moral choices, the consequences are good. When they make bad moral choices, the consequences (wages) are bad. Eventually the consequences for a "sin" will be death.

If you go in and work on a Monday, you may not see the wages of that work until the next Friday. But eventually you will see it. Same with "sin". As soon as you do it, you have hired the consequences (wages) for it. It may take a while to show up, but it will. The wages of that sin is dead.

Realizes that the Bible uses "death" to represent separation from God. It is not limited to physical death (though many sins do carry that for a consequence - drugs, alchohal, smoking, overeating, prositution, etc.) But just a :"small" sin, like lying to your spouse, cause a separation between you and them, and you and God. That is a form of "death". If the lying continues, it can lead to a "death" of the marriage and the family. The wages of the small lie is death.

It is the same with any sin that a person committs, its consequences will be the death of something or someone or yourself.

2007-06-04 07:25:01 · answer #4 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0 1

I'm a backward kinda guy so I'll tackle the second issue, i.e., grammar, first.

"Wages" (the plural) is often used with a singular verb. It's a matter of usage that turned into grammar, just like "awful" originally meant "something that invokes awe" but now means rotten or terrible.

The message itself is allegorical, in my opinion. Death is a separation from life. A sin separates us from what would make us fully alive. Ergo, the Wages of Sin is Death.

I'd give examples but I'm too sleepy.

Another day, perhaps.

2007-06-04 08:03:11 · answer #5 · answered by rhapword 6 · 0 0

The Wage Of Sin

2016-12-11 13:41:23 · answer #6 · answered by boettcher 4 · 0 0

OK... As quoted earlier, I have a different take on the meaning. First, God only reveals truth of his word to those he wishes. Second, I believe in the exact perfect preservation of the word of God. Second, I Believe in predestination. SO... The wages of sin is death (to me, not all) represents present tense for when it was written. It could read: Death IS the wages of sin, in which case this would be true. I do not believe however that impure, sinners who are destined to sin from birth til death have a logical opportunity to "choose" without fail. The meaning "could be" that Jesus has already died for our sins and that if the people he died for do not have eternal life, then he died in vain. He could not have died in vain, so this means all people who he died for will have everlasting life no matter how many bad naturally sinful descisions they make. However, they will inheritly have the oppurtunity to do good unto God for unselfish reasons, such as to repay him for services already rendered. To do good for the sake of going to a wonderful heavenly palace is motivation by greed and/or fear of the horribly quoted hell. Also a somewhat greedy reasoning if you think about it. I summarize that it is nothing more than what you take it for and how God wishes you to see it!! WITHOUT WORKS BY MAN!!!

2007-06-04 08:47:42 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Let us see. Wages would be payment for something done. Death is the currency used for the payment. Sin is the something done. The use of the word is makes it definite that sin would result in death.

2007-06-04 07:48:13 · answer #8 · answered by Nancy B 5 · 0 0

Romans 6:23
For the wages of sin is death, but the gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.

I'm going to surmise that the "is" modifies the word sin, not wages. As in "Sin IS Death", not "wages IS death". See what I mean? Contextually, the rest of the passage reads, "the gift of God is eternal life" as in "God IS eternal life". "Sin IS death". katiefish<><

2007-06-04 07:51:41 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

...The gift of God is eternal life.
The wage of sin are today now and yesterday death. It is always in the present tense because what was before is forgiven (if repented) what is ahead has not happened. We live in the hear and now.
Don't worry about tomorrow...

2007-06-04 07:16:59 · answer #10 · answered by momof2 5 · 0 0

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