English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I'm not finding it in Greek or Latin....

Hmmmm. Little help?

2007-06-04 05:12:12 · 23 answers · asked by LabGrrl 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Since the characters in the "Old Testament" practiced polygamy, obviously it doesn't come from Genesis. Thanks!

2007-06-04 05:39:40 · update #1

Hmmm..... I didn't ask anything about Gay marriage. Guilty much?

2007-06-04 05:40:48 · update #2

Thanks, wingless. Not in the Bible though, guess it's not a Biblical definition of marriage, huh?

2007-06-04 05:57:29 · update #3

23 answers

The Christians answering here seem to be confusing 'a' with 'one'. Their English grammar is nearly as lacking as their Hebrew.

2007-06-04 06:06:12 · answer #1 · answered by The angels have the phone box. 7 · 2 1

Not surprising, U would actually have to Own a Bible & then be able to read it! It is quite obvious that U don't read even a common KJV much less own Greek or Latin Vulgate translations! There are several Scriptures that have been hashed over & over here in both the O.T. & N.T. that speak clearly to the "Learned Gay Lifestyle" issue! Although I sometimes wonder how the "Gay" crowd can try to put down Gods' Plan of 1 man married to 1 woman when if it wasn't supposed to be that way, there would be NO Population, just 2 "Gay" whatevers, (insert Ur favorite "Polarity" here)!!! John

2007-06-04 05:29:07 · answer #2 · answered by moosemose 5 · 0 4

In the bible here are the verses concerning man & woman:

Mar 10:6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female. 7 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife; 8 And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh.
1Co 11:11 Nevertheless neither is the man without the woman, neither the woman without the man, in the Lord.
Eph 5:28 So ought men to love their wives as their own bodies. He that loveth his wife loveth himself.
1Co 7:2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.

There is never anything between people of the same sexe except about abominations.

And there are other mentions that any other relationship than a man and his wife, (unmaried man with woman and so on) are adultary. fornication, and so on

2007-06-04 05:25:43 · answer #3 · answered by monfille 3 · 3 2

the definition of marriage as a union between one man and one woman was first made by Modestine (Roman lawyer) in 234 AD (sorry if the year is wrong) in the Digests

it is not in the bible, this definition was later accepted by the church as the official definition of marriage

2007-06-04 05:55:07 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

Tim said it:
Genesis 2:24

25 Translations:
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?book_id=1&chapter=2&version=31

Hebrew and Greek:
http://bible.cc/genesis/2-24.htm

2007-06-04 05:21:53 · answer #5 · answered by digilook 2 · 1 2

Since the bible does not directly define marriage, once must conclude that it is acceptable to supplant the bible with local customs concerning how one is to be married and who is allowed to be married in cases where the Bible does not directly explain what is or isnt allowed.

The bible plainly indicates that a man may marry more than one woman however.

(wow 4 M words in a row)

2007-06-04 05:18:40 · answer #6 · answered by Don't Fear the Reaper 3 · 7 2

Church lady...she didnt ask that...please supply her with specific verse in the bible that defines marriage as one man and one woman......
If you are going to use that as the basis for the arguement,,,that would also mean incest is approved by god since the only females for the first born male to concieve children with were either their mother or their sisters

2007-06-04 05:17:39 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

You used to be able to take bunches of wives and discard the ones you didn't like but now you shouldn't because it is the end of times. Well I think it is bullshit, but that is what the bible says.

2007-06-04 06:16:24 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

“That is why a man will leave his father and his mother and he must stick to his wife and they must become one flesh.” (Genesis 2:24)

“Did YOU not read that he who created them from [the] beginning made them male and female  and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and his mother and will stick to his wife, and the two will be one flesh’?  So that they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what God has yoked together let no man put apart.”(Matthew 19:4-6)

"However, from [the] beginning of creation ‘He made them male and female.  On this account a man will leave his father and mother,  and the two will be one flesh’; so that they are no longer two, but one flesh." (Mark 10:6-8)

2007-06-04 05:25:50 · answer #9 · answered by izofblue37 5 · 1 2

Well...the first marriage was performed by God in the first few chapters of Genesis. He created man, and saw that he needed a helper, so God created woman from man.

When they both were driven out of the Garden, God even slew an animal and clothed them with its skins.

Perhpas you would find it easier in the New American standard than the Greek or Latin.

2007-06-04 05:18:52 · answer #10 · answered by BowtiePasta 6 · 1 4

fedest.com, questions and answers