Is the Bible literal or interpretive?

Question

The way I see it, if the Bible is literal then it is a crock and anyone who has actually spent any time reading it would know that it is a crock if it is meant as literal.If it is interpretive then it is open to various interpretations and thus becomes useless since it has nothing that is held as true without the ability to be picked apart through interpretation.

Right?

I notice people answering by mentioning what Jesus taught.What about all the rest of the Bible?Literal or interpretive?This question is about and reflects all the Bible.Not just what Jesus said or certain selective passages say.Answer this question as it is meant for the whole book.I never even asked about Jesus.I am asking about the whole book.

Answer 1

right, also it was written 2000 years ago and then translated a bunch of times. Remember that game we played as kids - start a sentence and wisper it into someones ear. by the time it got to the end of the line it wasn't even close to the original sentence. Just think what happens after 2000 years and millions of interpretations.

Answer 2

Incorrect, it has verses that are literal, and it has verses that are interpretive. Fortunately, the Bible pretty clearly lines out which parts are meant to be taken literally, and which parts are meant to be taken interpretively. For example, those that are meant to be interpreted are usually introduced by Jesus as fables, whereas others are passed along as actual fact.

Where they are passed as fact, it almost always comes to pass that they can later be backed up by archaeological evidence, or at the very least, can rationally have occured. If one approaches it with the idea that "it must be a crock", however, it is like debating Global Warming, some people just have their noses in the air and will believe anything.

EDIT: To respond to your follow up, you are being kind of choosey now that you realized that the answer is not as simple as you thought. You are opting to omit parts of the book, and not others.

The fact is, it's not ALL interpretive, and it's not ALL literal. It wholly depends. It's not "a book" either.

Let me give you an example. Song of Solomon is a series of letters between a king and a concubine/prostitute. Psalm is a compilation of songs. Luke is a letter to a Roman politician concerning the recent upstart in the Judea province. Matthew is a letter to the Jewish people. Revelation is a letter of hope to the Jewish people. Exodus is a chronicle depicting the (archaeologically supported) exodus of the Jews.

So, you have to take it as it is - it is both. Would you like more examples sir?

Answer 3

It is both literal and symbolic.
When Daniel wrote his book, it was made plain to him to write and then close it up because what he wrote would have no meaning to his time. It is only NOW, when we are seeing current conditions, that it becomes clear.
Example;
(Daniel 2:44) “And in the days of those kings the God of heaven will set up a kingdom that will never be brought to ruin. And the kingdom itself will not be passed on to any other people. It will crush and put an end to all these kingdoms, and it itself will stand to times indefinite;

In our times, there are very few Kingdoms. They have been replaced by governments.
So now the scripture really says that God will set up a government, the "top man" being Jesus.
And it will NOT be replaced.
Now the timing of that government is noted in Daniel
(Daniel 9:25) And you should know and have the insight [that] from the going forth of [the] word to restore and to rebuild Jerusalem until Mes·si′ah [the] Leader, there will be seven weeks, also sixty-two weeks. She will return and be actually rebuilt, with a public square and moat, but in the straits of the times.
the word to rebuild was 607 B.C.E.
And from that it can be deduced when Jesus' Kingdom began.,
2,520 years from early October of 607 B.C.E. brings us to early October of 1914 C.E., as shown on the chart.
CALCULATING THE “SEVEN TIMES”
“Seven times” = 7 X 360 = 2,520 years
A Biblical “time,” or year = 12 X 30 days = 360. (Rev. How, then, is the time calculated down to 1914? Counting 11:2, 3; 12:6, 14)
In the fulfillment of the “seven times” each day equals one year. (Ezek. 4:6; Num. 14:34)
Early October, 607 B.C.E., to December 31, 607 B.C.E.= 1/4 year
January 1, 606 B.C.E., to December 31, 1 B.C.E. = 606 years
January 1, 1 C.E., to December 31, 1913 = 1,913 years
January 1, 1914, to early October, 1914 = 3/4 year
Total: 2,520 years
So Jesus has been ruling his Kingdom since 1914...from heaven. His subjects are those who are fully obeying. Complying with all his requirements.
And this makes the end of this system of things very close.
The Jews were kep wandering in the wilderness for forty years. And then given the promised land.
They were kept captive in slavery to Babvylon for seventy years. and then released to rebuild Jerusalem.
It has now been ninety three years since the establishment of Jesus' kingdom.
(Habakkuk 2:2-3) And Jehovah proceeded to answer me and to say: “Write down [the] vision, and set [it] out plainly upon tablets, in order that the one reading aloud from it may do so fluently. 3 For [the] vision is yet for the appointed time, and it keeps panting on to the end, and it will not tell a lie. Even if it should delay, keep in expectation of it; for it will without fail come true. It will not be late.

Answer 4

When teaching principles or concepts for which there are no actual words or phrases in existence, analogies and symbols are the logical choice. Like, how would you explain color to a blind person? Jesus chose to communicate this way because it makes good sense and He knew that only those who discover the kingdom of God within themselves would be able to understand Him. Be smart, any attempt at understanding the words of Jesus without The Holy Spirit is worse than futile, it is downright deadly.

Addition: I do not include the o.t. in my answer because Jesus told us that the god of Moses was satan and not credible in The Apocryphon of John. The best parts of the n.t. like The Apocryphon of John were excluded from the n.t. Be smart, Jesus+Holy Spirit= absolute truth+unconditional love.

Answer 5

That depends on the mind that reads it!

I think it has a combination of things. To some, it is a dream once dreamt which leaves the mind unfulfilled because they've forgotten. Then, there's the mind that remembers fulliy what it was that they have seen and will try to decipher it's meaning.

Either way, the dream/bible, is symbolic of a word of knowledge. Who knows that forgets?


Your sister,
Ginger

Answer 6

Besides parables and a few stories, the Bible is literal.

The Bible promised that people can receive the Holy Ghost, and millions of people have received Him. And the Spirit of God confirms that the Bible is true.

Answer 7

Firstly, it's a wondrous world we live in.

Secondly, criminals like code, because they like to know who's got the "in" words and who doesn't know them.

The Bible works well as metaphor, but it's also a record of how to actually get around mythology, which is taught by many teachers (2 Timothy 4:3, 4).

It's good when read in chunks, and just let the message sink in.

Answer 8

How does God see Homosexuality? Leviticus 18 22Thou shalt no longer lie with mankind, as with womankind: that's abomination. Leviticus 20 13If a guy additionally lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, the two considered one of them have committed an abomination: they shall actual be placed to loss of life; their blood would be upon them. Romans a million: 26For this reason God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their females did substitute the organic use into that it relatively is against nature: 27And likewise additionally the adult males, leaving the organic use of the female, burned of their lust one in the direction of yet another; adult males with adult males working that it relatively is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompense of their blunders which became into meet. Romans a million: 32Who understanding the judgment of God, that they which commit such issues are worth of loss of life, no longer in basic terms do a similar, yet have excitement in them that do them. Fornications – any intercourse between 2 people who're no longer married. a million Corinthians 5:10 yet no longer altogether with the fornicators of this international, or with the covetous, or extortioners, or with idolaters; for then ought to ye desires bypass out of the international. a million Corinthians 6:9 know ye no longer that the unrighteous shall no longer inherit the dominion of God? Be no longer deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, Mark 7:21 For from interior, out of the middle of adult males, proceed evil ideas, adulteries, fornications, murders, Galatians 5:19 Now the works of the flesh are ensue, that are those; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness, Jude a million:7 whilst Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities approximately them in like way, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after unusual flesh, are set forth for an occasion, suffering the vengeance of eternal hearth. Revelation 21:8 however the frightened, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their section interior the lake which burneth with hearth and brimstone: it relatively is the 2nd loss of life. Homosexuality is a sin in God’s eyes. all of us have some form of iniquity...we handle it and we convey regret... if we are genuine Christians.

Answer 9

The Bible is interesting that way, because if it is open to interpretation, really open, you can actually find whatever answer you need in there.

Answer 10

I agree with you. This is so true. If the bible was meant to be taken literally then there would be many contradictions.