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Why do people get so angry when it's pointed out that the virgin birth is a commonly-used religious metaphor describing the enlightenment experience (used for both Buddha and Jesus, among others)? And that it has NOTHING to do with Mary, mothers, birth, etc.?

2007-06-03 08:35:23 · 19 answers · asked by hacky 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

19 answers

26In the sixth month, God sent the angel Gabriel to Nazareth, a town in Galilee, 27to a virgin pledged to be married to a man named Joseph, a descendant of David. The virgin's name was Mary. 28The angel went to her and said, "Greetings, you who are highly favored! The Lord is with you."
29Mary was greatly troubled at his words and wondered what kind of greeting this might be. 30But the angel said to her, "Do not be afraid, Mary, you have found favor with God. 31You will be with child and give birth to a son, and you are to give him the name Jesus. 32He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High. The Lord God will give him the throne of his father David, 33and he will reign over the house of Jacob forever; his kingdom will never end."

34"How will this be," Mary asked the angel, "since I am a virgin?"

35The angel answered, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God. 36Even Elizabeth your relative is going to have a child in her old age, and she who was said to be barren is in her sixth month. 37For nothing is impossible with God."

38"I am the Lord's servant," Mary answered. "May it be to me as you have said." Then the angel left her.

Luke 1:26-38

What is it about this simple narrative you don't understand?

2007-06-03 08:41:56 · answer #1 · answered by wefmeister 7 · 4 3

Your question and detail are an excellent example of applying concepts not used by the authors of the Gospels and Acts and definitely not understood by their readers.

Matthew 1:18-25 and Luke 1:26-38, (in particular Luke 1:34) explicitly state Mary's condition physically not metaphorically. The key phrase in verse 34 from the Greek is "epei aner ou ginosko" translated as "since MAN NOT I-AM-KNOWING". The Greek word ginosko is used to translate a Jewish idiom for sexual intercourse between a man and a woman into Greek. The Greek word for your concept is gnosis (which is also an English word.)

Unfortunately, we can not state influences that are not there. The Gospels in Greek translates Hebrew concepts, not Buddhist.

Answer: Do you really believe you can find Zen mind in the Gospels?

2007-06-03 09:24:54 · answer #2 · answered by J. 7 · 1 0

That's just it. For you to say difinitively that it is not being used as it was intended is just as foolish as the people who say that it is. Now I do support your idea that it was a metaphore and that the majority of important people like kings and pharoes were supposedly the result of virgin births as well. But to say that that is exactly what was intended requires a lot more proof than what you've provided. It's just yet another in a long line of biblical misinterpretations by the evangelical movement. Taking the bible or any ancient scripture literally (especially when that is not how people wrote back then) is to invite ridicule, and suppress the truth.

2007-06-03 08:42:49 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

It was not intended any way than what God has revealed and that Mary was a virgin when she gave birth to Jesus. In this way Jesus was born without a sinful nature. Now we can believe you or God. I'll go with Him as He cannot lie. Now I suppose I'll be on your list of ones who are angry even though I'm not.

2007-06-03 08:42:23 · answer #4 · answered by beek 7 · 3 1

You're right about it referring to an enlightened state of mind, but it also refers to pure, unconditional love. Without that from some source, few souls could advance to such enlightened states as Jesus, the Buddha etc. We all need a mirror of our true nature - to see our own capacity for transcendent 'being.'

2007-06-03 08:42:51 · answer #5 · answered by MysticMaze 6 · 0 2

Because Jesus was conceived in the virgin womb of Miriam (Mary). God created Him in the womb as both God and man. We know this because that is what is in the Bible, which is God's Holy Word. And we do not apologize for it.

2007-06-03 08:44:15 · answer #6 · answered by †Lawrence R† 6 · 0 0

i realize it relatively is totally confusing to have faith, even for a Christian. yet think of roughly it this manner. If God could make the entire universe and each little thing in it then actual he may additionally handle an immaculate thought. besides the shown fact that: devil places multiple stuff in our thank you to divert us from what relatively counts. This argument or situation, is only yet another one that could confuse or intervene with the flaws that relatively count, like what's relatively in our hearts, and how organic is our bloodline. only my opinion: it relatively is not significant to me as a Christian the two way if Jesus became into born of immaculate thought or despite if he became right into a "bastard". inspite of each and everything, i'm a bastard because of the fact I by no ability met my father (he made my mom pregnant then ducked), yet I nevertheless evaluate myself worth and enjoyed and of God's bloodline. So none of that concerns to me. it relatively is who and what God made you that concerns to me.

2016-11-25 19:10:27 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

So then, according to you, I can read the entire Bible and assume that everything in it is really just a metaphor. Why would I bother being a Christian then? Since it is all just a metaphor, it would be a waste of my time to follow its points. Or are you one who just picks and chooses what is to be strictly interpreted and what is just a story?

2007-06-03 08:58:22 · answer #8 · answered by seattlefan74 5 · 1 1

You can use it as a metaphor if you want to, but it IS LITERAL!!
Jesus was "the Word made flesh", the "word" came from Father God to Mary and she accepted it and the Holy Spirit of God 'overshadowed' her and she conceived that Word by saying; "be it unto me according to your word"... and she was pregnant!
That's the LITERAL facts!
She gave birth to the literal "word of God" in the flesh.., John 1: 1 - 3. Read it for yourself!
He IS spirit, truth, life, health and medicine to our flesh..., God's only begotten Son. He and the father are ONE..., not two! That's no metaphor.
The baby boy was BORN... He became flesh and blood, a person named Yeshua. He grew up and was confirmed AS God's only begotten Son and was dispised and rejected by men then as now and was so intimidating to those who were fearful and jealous and demonic and hateful because He lived what He taught.., so they decided He had to die..., the only thing is that He knew it would come to this and so He decided to take upon himself our sin; the sins of the world; and pay the price FOR sin for ALL mankind. He did through His crucifixion. God became "man" so you could become a "child/son of God".

2007-06-03 08:52:43 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Which school of Theology are you referring?
Hermeneutics & interpreters Have found two ways of interpretation that are equal in reality to each other. Either one can be express with confidence the proposed meaning. Theologist acknowledge two possible paths--when did they eliminate one path? Literalism is still a viable school. Have you not studied or did you read one and deny the other.

2007-06-03 08:48:33 · answer #10 · answered by j.wisdom 6 · 1 1

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