In the synoptic gospels (ie. Matthew, Mark, Luke), Jesus referred to Himself as the Son of Man. If He had a virgin birth, and God the Father was His Dad, why'd he use that term. Son of woman, or son of God would have been alright, but not Son of Man.
2007-06-02 22:35:02 · 17 answers · asked by JIMMY 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
For two reasons:
1) Being fully Man, by being born of Mary, He wanted to fully identify Himself with Mankind. So that, as a man, He could become the Savior of men.
2) And more important. By identifying Himself as "the Son of Man", He was pointing everyone back to the Prophet Daniel.
Daniel 7:13 says,
"I kept looking in the night visions,
And behold, with the clouds of heaven
One like a Son of Man was coming,
And He came up to the Ancient of Days
And was presented before Him."
This was a well know Messianic passage that the People knew well. In short, by using this Title, He was claiming to be the long-awaited Messiah, without actually having to come right out and say so. Which would have got Him in trouble with the Jewish Leaders, before "His time".
He actually referred to the Daniel passage (and Psalm 110) when on trial before the High Priest.(when His "time had come" and He wanted to publicly declare Himself the Messiah).
"....nevertheless I tell you, hereafter you shall see 'THE SON OF MAN SITTING AT THE RIGHT HAND OF POWER, and COMING ON THE CLOUDS OF HEAVEN"--Matt 26:64
So, that is why He used the phrase.
Hope that helps you.
theBerean
2007-06-03 00:06:52 · answer #1 · answered by theBerean 5 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Mary was, for want of a better word, His surrugate Mum.
Lu 1:35
The angel replied to her: The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. Therefore the holy child to be born will be called the Son of God.
The Geneaology.
Lu 3:38
son of Enos, son of Seth, son of Adam, son of God.
Jesus had to stay hidden for as long as He could remember, So He even commanded the Demons to Hush about who He was!
Lu 4:41
Also, demons were coming out of many, shouting and saying, "You are the Son of God!" But He rebuked them and would not allow them to speak, because they knew He was the Messiah.
John 1:49
"Rabbi," Nathanael replied, "You are the Son of God! You are the King of Israel!"
JESUS is speaking Himself in these next 4 Scriptures and there are heaps more, but not enough room for all.
John 3:18
Anyone who believes in Him is not judged, but anyone who does not believe is already judged, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God.
John 5:25
"I assure you: An hour is coming, and is now here, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live."
John 10:36
do you say, 'You are blaspheming' to the One the Father set apart and sent into the world, because I said 'I am the Son of God'?
John 11:4
When Jesus heard it, He said, "This sickness will not end in death, but is for the glory of God, so that the Son of God may be glorified through it."
2007-06-02 23:10:31 · answer #2 · answered by ? 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Son of God Son of man He was made in the womb of a woman and the Bible always refered to God's creation be it female or male as man. Any way the word of God puts it, is alright with me.....he is Lord! Why sweat the small stuff..God is Good. Jesus came, Immanuel means God with us....
2007-06-02 22:47:51 · answer #3 · answered by God is love. 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If it is true that Jesus said I am a son of man he is right because the word man = human or a person, regardless of sex or age so there is no argument that Jesus was a son of Merry ( a person) who was human. and it is far from truth that Human could be the mother of God.
When will u open your eyes you guys. Allah warns you hell fire after death, pls each one of you look for the truth by your self do not listen any one just research which faith is exact faith among the many faiths people believe.
2007-06-02 22:47:51 · answer #4 · answered by adamjer 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It's significant that every use of the term is by Jesus himself (apart from Stephen, when being stoned to death seeing Christ in heaven). The use of the title goes back to Jesus, for the early Christians never used it, so why would they place on his lips a title they never used themselves? Nor did Jesus always use it as coded language, to conceal his divinity: "Whoever is ashamed of me and of my words, of him will the Son of Man be ashamed" (Mk 8:38) - this in reference to the Day of Judgment! Also, at his trial (Mk 14:62) his use of 'Son of Man' was followed by an exclamation "Why do we still need witnesses? You have heard the blasphemy!"
But the association with Daniel's prophecies is significant. Christ, we are told, was sustained by the joy set before him (Heb 12:2), and 'the Son of Man' was a reminder of that. One day, his people would receive a kingdom at his hand; one day, all peoples, nations and languages would serve him. But even in the midst of such thoughts the idea of the Suffering Servant could never be very far away: "He shall see the travail of his soul and shall be satisfied" (Isaiah 53:11).
His humanity was never in doubt by those he mingled with, yet Christ undoubtedly knew that his deity would gradually dawn on his followers and that 'Son of God' would predominate their thinking. To keep the balance right, perhaps he stressed his humanity in order to defeat the gnostics who would quickly assert that he merely assumed human form whilst being utterly divine in nature.
2007-06-04 06:02:03 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus called himself the son of man, because he was born as man from virgin Mary. He called it man because woman originated f rom the man and if says man, it is understood human but was not necessarily written as woman. Everybody of us whether man or woman belongs to mankind.
jtm
2007-06-02 22:42:58 · answer #6 · answered by Jesus M 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
he was the son of man because he was showing how all of us can be like Jesus. we are all sons and daughters of God as well
2007-06-02 22:43:18 · answer #7 · answered by NOT just looking for action 1 · 2⤊ 1⤋
The explanation given to me was that he was the son (of god) but he was man, so he shortened it to "son of man" to save ink.
2007-06-02 22:38:32 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
He is the son o man inthe sense that he had Abraham as grandfather. God is not his dad.That is blasphemy
2007-06-02 23:18:24 · answer #9 · answered by Ahmad 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
You have to remember 1) the bible is false and 2) it wasn't written in english and thus there is a strong chance of mis-translation.
Also..no one was running around writting down what jesus was saying when he said it, it was written down 50 years after..so..most likely..anything you read..isn't what the man people believe was jesus really said.
2007-06-02 22:39:12 · answer #10 · answered by rantan1618 3 · 2⤊ 4⤋