Does how the Spanish language is spoken, differentiate between Spanish-speaking countries?

Question

I have observed that Latin Americans speak Spanish at a very rapid pace, but when I watch films from the country of Spain, the speech pacing seems much softer and easier to listen to, as well as to discern. I do not speak Spanish. I hope Spanish-speaking people here can answer my question.

Is there any significant difference between how people from the country of Spain speak Spanish, versus how Mexicans and other Latin Americans speak Spanish?

Answer 1

All the Spanish speaking countries have a different accent. Not only that, inside each country there are also differences between the regions. Just like it happens in English.

I've heard many Spaniards speak at a very high speed, so I imagine that depends on a lot of things. Sometimes two individuals that have the same accent, let's say two brothers, speak at a different speed.
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Answer 2

This is just an addedum to the answers above, which are all excellent replies to what you were looking for.

One of the reasons that languages vary so much across the globe (and not only Spanish!) is that language changes over time. Just reading words from Shakespeare illustrates this.

Add to this the fact that Europeans did not "discover" the New World. There were already indigenous peoples living here, each with their own language and culture. So as colonization took place, the language became necessarily infused with terminology from the native languages, as well as with new terms for things that are unique to the American continents, such as plants and animals, thus foods.

This is why there are varying ethnicities within the Spanish speaking world as well. Even the south of Spain has distinct Arabic influences in the people and in the culture. Imagine how much more so when we think about the native peoples of Mexico (differing tribes in the different regions), of South America, and of the Caribbean islands.

Answer 3

Of course there is. In Spain first off, they use 'vosotros' which means 'you all' as when talking to a group of people. Other Latin countries don't use that. In Puerto Rico, sometimes they do not pronounce their r's. So therefore, "ganar" (to win) would be "ganal" if you heard a Puerto Rican say it, although it's not always like that. And of course, slang words in Colombia are totally different from ones in Mexico, or Panama, etc. As other people said, there are also different words, pronunciations and accents as well. So for example, think of a person with a Southern accent...then think of a person with a New Jersey accent. It's all very different. But it is all mainly understandable, if you're a native Spanish speaker.

Answer 4

Very much so.

There are many slang words and things like that that differ betwen countries, but how the language is spoken is very different as well. Different pronunciations and accents change the entire feel of the language.

As for the major difference betwen spanish in Spain and spanish in Latin America, I'd have to say it is the "th" sound in replace of many "s" sounds. It can make the same word sound very different.

Answer 5

Absolutely!

All Spanish speaking countries, in the old and new world, have their peculiar way of speaking, which differentiates them from the other. It's basically the same in English, like when when you put together in a room people from England, Australia, South Afica, U.S.A, Jamaica, etc.

However, most Spanish speaking people people DO NOT have trouble understanding one another, since virtually 98% of the words are the same. The accents vary, but once you "catch on" (which is fairly easy to do), the communication process is virtually flawless.

Hope it helps!

Answer 6

Yes. People from Panama can tell that a person is from Puerto Rico, Venezuelans can tell if someone is from Mexico. There is different usage of words and meanings. If you wanted to learn Spanish there are at last 2 versions taught - one for Spain and one for Latin American countries.

Answer 7

There are differences between Spanish "castellano" as spoken in Spain and the Spanish in Latin America. There are differences in pronunciation regionally. The Spanish spoken in Castilla y Leon is different from the Spanish spoken in Extremadura.

Some of the word usage is different. When I was taking Spanish in college, I learned that the word for "waiter" was «camarero», yet when I was doing English as a Second Language (ESL) training with a Guatemalan immigrant, he was not familiar with that word. He thought it had to deal with a bed or beds (Spanish word «cama»). He said the proper word was «mesero».

Within Latin America, there are country-to-country differences in pronunciation. Take the word for "horse" -- «caballo». The Castilian Spanish I learned in college would have me pronounce it "cabayo". The people in Argentina would pronounce it "cabazhyo".

The capital of Spain, "Madrid", in Castilian Spanish would be pronounced "Madrith" [pronunciation of a 'theta'], but in México, it would be pronounced "Madree,"

Answer 8

Yes, the difference is quite large, almost like British vs. American English. One difference is that Spanish Spanish is softer, and the pronunciation of certain consonants and consonant combinations are different.
For example, here is the Latin American Spanish version of one song,
http://youtube.com/watch?v=l-6YqKNjJnY
While this is the "Spanish from Spain" version:
http://youtube.com/watch?v=fvLkn4Q0Fxg

Answer 9

yes very much so, even from town to town in a single country

If you're interested (and speak Spanish), find yourself a copy of Introduccion a la Linguistica Hispanica. It will tell you more than you ever wanted to know and I'm sorry I sold it.

Answer 10

Yes, not only accent and cadence of speech, but actual words for something are not necessarily the same from country to country.