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The Bible is often used to restrict marital laws when it comes to gay marriage. But the God of the Bible also allowed many ancient men to marry multiple wives.

If gay marriage isn't allowed based on the word of God, why is polygamy not allowed in our laws?

2007-06-01 13:59:08 · 23 answers · asked by ? 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

23 answers

*insidiously rubs chin*

Hmmmm.............

2007-06-01 14:02:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3 2

What you must realize first is that 1) marriage - specifially eternal and celestial marriage (which includes plural marriage) is an Eternal Law. It is a doctrine and principle of the gospel. and 2) that when the gospel, the full gospel, was restored, ALL doctrines and principles were restored, and that included celestial marriage - which in turn includes plural marriage. Men can still be sealed to more than one woman if the first wife has passed away... there will be plural marriages that are in effect in the Celestial Kingdom. It however is NOT a requirement nor will it ever be forced upon anyone... Joseph actually, in the beginning, did not want to do this. The Lord chastised Him for disobeying. Whether or not he ever consumated the marriages or had children will always be up for debate because no one really knows for 100% sure except those involved and God. And really, it has no bearing on whether or not the gospel is true. IF we believe that Joseph was/is a prophet of God, we must also believe that this plural marriage was revelation and that it was to be followed. I think it was stopped for several reasons but the main being that the Lord showed to the prophet later, what would happen IF the plural marriage continued. It clearly is not a doctrine that can be lived very well among carnal people. I think in the next life, it won't even be a big deal because we will not have negative feelings about it. It won't be the same because things like jealousy and lust will not exist. People can assume and speculate all they want. Polygamy was practiced for a short time, not by all members, and was stopped. I think people make WAAAY to big of a deal about it. If you truly understand the gospel and the POINT of being sealed together, you would see it as a huge blessing for any involved. If Joseph ever did anything that was not in accordance with God's will, he'll have to answer for that. Not you, not me. He wasn't perfect. But he truly was a prophet of God.

2016-05-18 23:49:33 · answer #2 · answered by nell 3 · 0 0

The Bible is not just merely the word of God, but it is also history. When it told of men having more than one wife, it was just telling that as a historical fact. It didn't say that it was right!!! As a matter of fact, take Solomon. He had over 1000 wives and mistresses. God was very against that, because he married so many women that he went to worshipping other gods that they worshipped. And what does one have to do with the other, except that God says "you shall not lay with a man, as you do with a woman." This is an abomination to God! The Bible defines marriage as the union of ONE MAN AND ONE WOMAN. That's why God made Adam and Eve, not Adam and Eve, and Janet, and Wilma, and Florence, and etc.! And that's also why He didn't make Adam and Steve!!!! God blesses families. No family can come from two gay people. As for more wives, the Bible says " And the TWO shall become one." not the three, four, five, or six. Read the Bible. You would find all the answers.

2007-06-09 06:32:41 · answer #3 · answered by byHisgrace 7 · 0 0

The laws of polygamy are complex. I believe the Biblical prophets who practiced polygamy probably lived by the same laws as the Muslims do (in regards to polygamy). I read a really good article on the rules of Islamic polygamy. It explains a lot. (I can't seem to find it here, ATM. I'll have another look, though.)

Someone already said that the NT makes it clear that bishops and deacons should only have one wife (1 Tim. 3: 2, 12). The Bible doesn't really explain this issue in enough depth for a clear understanding of when polygamy is acceptable and when it is not. (Islamic laws are pretty clear on this, though, according to what I've read.)

God's views on homosexuality, however, are very clear.

2007-06-01 14:30:43 · answer #4 · answered by MumOf5 6 · 0 0

Times change. The Bible before it was a book was a scattered gathering of documents, and was voted on. Only a few books selected from many made it in. It's been edited as well, repeatedly. It was written by and for desert dwellers a couple thousand years ago. Nomadic tribes needed members, so a man had many wives and children. More folks to work for the family survival.
Social reasons dictate changes in traditions. Polygamy in America is seen only in backward, clannish areas. It benefits very few, usually a few select male elders, and often involves defrauding the government for benefits for many of the "families" as only one wife is actually "legal" and the others are officially "single mothers" and can apply and collect welfare. Stands to reason that a man can't well afford several wives and families, so usually the taxpayer picks up the tab. Times change.

2007-06-08 12:31:45 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If you read Jesus' words, he says that God only allowed divorce because the people's hearts were hardenedl. It wasn't His original plan. By the same token, polygamy was allowed, but if you read the stories, there were always problems in these families. God shows us what happens when you do these things.

Why have we had fighting in Israel/ Palestine for all these years? Because Abraham took a 2nd mate, even at his wife's request. The two women came to despise one another after Hagar had a son. There was fighting, and Hagar and Ishmael were sent away, becoming at odds with Israel for the rest of time.

The things that happen in the Bible are not all acceptable practices. you have to read between the lines in a sense and see what fruit comes from these actions to determine whether or not they are good. I can't think of one instance of polygamy that didn't lead to problems. I think that is a pretty good indicator of the wisdom of doing such a thing.

In the only mention of gays in the Bible, their whole community was destroyed by sulphur and fire. That is a very strong message of what God thinks of their ways.

2007-06-02 03:41:51 · answer #6 · answered by BaseballGrrl 6 · 0 1

You need to remember that the Bible is recording what happened in the history. All the things recorded were not God's plan for us. God is patient with us. We are under the new covenant, which is better, I think.

However, if man should have many wives, then it should be allowed that a woman would have several husbands. And if that was allowed, can they all sleep with each other? That would finally make it possible for gay people to be married but they would just have to -unfortunately- ; ) include one or more "outsider/s" to the marriage.

Can of worms.

2007-06-01 16:53:46 · answer #7 · answered by Ulrika 5 · 1 0

Because human beings, who are at best, somewhat flawed in logic and interpretation, and almost always guilty of making rules that further their own self-interest are the ones who have determined for the rest of us how it is that we are supposed "interpret" the Bible. But, be careful here, because the polygamy you refer to as allowed by God is referenced in the Old Testament, which is a written history and interpretation of ancient parables, a recitation of man's history and evolution as a spiritual creature, not a blueprint for how to live our lives, such as the New Testament is said to be. Another concept worthy of note when wrestling with what the Bible means or truly meant to tell us, is that just because God did not have a fit against it, does not mean that He endorsed it, whereas when He spoke specifically against something, well, that was meant!

2007-06-01 14:08:44 · answer #8 · answered by naniannie 5 · 2 0

If polygamy is prohibited by the bible then G-d is a hypocrite! When almost every prophet and king He ordained had many wives and G-d never said once it was sin, he actually blessed those prophets. Those of you who think that G-d is against polygamy do you think you’re more holy than Abraham or David or Solomon the wisest man that was and the wisest man will come? Are you going to point your finger at them when G-d himself bestowed his blessings on them?

Are we going to ADD to G-d's Torah? he never said "Thou shalt marry only one wife" He said the opposite! Especially when all His great men BELIEVD AND PRACTICED POLIGAMY . are you of a different religion than they?

The Rabbi's prohibited polygamy because of the Christians and what Jesus said. I don't believe the NT is the Bible it’s an addition to it, but that's beside the point lets see what the bible really says:

KJV:Exodus 21:10 If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish.

In 2 Samuel 5:13; 1 Chronicles 3:1-9, 14:3, King David had six wives and numerous concubines.

In 1 Kings 11:3, King Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines.

In Deuteronomy 21:15 "If a man has two wives, and he loves one but not the other, and both bear him sons...."

There are a lot more verses from the Old Testament that allow polygamy, but I think that the above are sufficient enough to prove my point.

Now a treat for Christians is Polygamy in the NT

Jesus said: "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law (the Old Testament) or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke or a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law (the Old Testament) until everything is accomplished. (Matthew 5:17-18)"

Keep this is mind he never came to change the law.

Read Matthew 19:1-12
Matt 19:3 3. Some Pharisees came to him to test him. They asked, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any and every reason?" The Question of Divorce

In the above verses, we see that Jesus was approached with a question about whether or not it is allowed for a man to divorce his wife in Matthew 19:3. Jesus immediately referred to the Old Testament for the answer in Matthew 19:4. He referred to Adam and Eve, one man and one woman. The Old Testament does talk about the story of Adam and Eve as one husband and one wife. However, the Old Testament which Jesus had referred to in Matthew 19:3 does allow polygamy.

Also, when a man becomes a one flesh with his wife in Matthew 19:5-6, this doesn't mean that the man can't be one flesh with another woman. He can be one flesh with his first wife, and one flesh with his second wife, and one flesh with his third wife and so on.... To further prove this point, let us look at the following from the New Testament:

READ Matthew 22:23-32

In Matthew 22:24-28, the Jews referred to Deuteronomy 25:5 from the Old Testament where it states that if a woman's husband dies, and she didn't have any kids from him, then she must marry his brother regardless whether he had a wife or not. When the Jews brought this situation up to Jesus in Matthew 22:24-28, Jesus did not prohibit at all for the childless widow to marry her husband's brother (even if he were married). Instead, Jesus replied to them by saying that we do not marry in heaven, and we will be like angels in heaven (Matthew 22:30).

So in other words, if Jesus allowed for a widow to marry her former husband's brother even if he were married, then this negates the Christians' claim about the Bible prohibiting polygamy. A man can be one flesh with more than one woman. In the case of Matthew 22:24-28, the man can be one flesh with his wife, and one flesh with his deceased brother's wife. Also keep in mind that Exodus 21:10 allows a man to marry an infinite amount of women, and Deuteronomy 21:15 allows a man to marry more than one wife.

I would never marry any other than my wife coz I love her, but I will never call G-d’s law a lie and try to cover what he is doing, when all his holy men practiced polygamy with G-d’s seal of approval.

A note on stefan_lss quote: God himself does not approve of polygamy. Deuteronomy 17:17 says: " Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not away: neither shall he greatly multiply to himself silver and gold."

READ THE CHAPTER and you’ll see that G-d did not want foreign wives that will take the KING”S heart away from G-d, not that he should be monogamous!! Besides from that reasoning is G–d saying as well the king should only have ONE piece of Silver or One piece of Gold? G-d already issued His command that polygamy is ok, good and not sin in the Torah and the verses I mentioned above

2007-06-09 01:50:46 · answer #9 · answered by seeker 1 · 1 1

The Bible simply records the choices these men made. No where in the Bible does it say that God approved. In fact, he clearly indicates his will is one man and one woman for life.

The people followed the culture of their times as most people today do.

2007-06-08 09:41:49 · answer #10 · answered by fanofchan 6 · 1 0

The Bible admits that people committed polygamy just as it admits that people practiced other things But it does not condone it.There is a difference.

2007-06-08 14:53:02 · answer #11 · answered by David F 5 · 0 0

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