that Christ is only mentioned as the Savior in reference to ONE BOOK: the Jewish Bible?
Anything written afterwards will obviously grab any literary allusion in the OT and say "THIS points to JC" and THIS DOES TOO."
what a laugh. Hey Do me a favor.
Someone find us a reference to Christ in SOME OTHER CULTURE, somehwere, anywhere on EARTH. If His Truth is so universal, every religion and every language on the planet should have been prediciting His Reign, not just the one that his Apostles happened to have gone to elementary school in.
Don't show me how many labnguages the Bible has been translated into -- that is just silly.
I mean find us some evidence from 2000 years ago, in China, in India, in South America, North America, Asia, Africa -- ANYWHERE where the world was rich in learned lettered civilizations.
2007-06-01 12:34:29 · 12 answers · asked by emagidson 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
They choose to just ignore things like that
2007-06-01 12:38:07 · answer #1 · answered by Sir Reginald Whiskers 3 · 1⤊ 4⤋
Well, you may be surprised by this, but your question leads directly to some of the best evidence for the bible's authenticity as the word of God.
The bible is not "One book". It is actually a library of 66 books/letters. They were written over a period of about 1600 years, by over 40 writers. From the first book, the expectation of a Deliverer was established, and the arrival of Jesus 1500 years later was the fulfillment of that and several other prophecies. The Deliverer was not called by the name of "Jesus", but Hebrews who were anticipating the arrival recognized him by the fulfilment of the prophecies, and people continue to recognize Him even today.
The test of a true prophet is that what they said comes true.
Various books in the bible make prophesies about the Deliverer who would come from God that are quite specific.
The ones I personally find most convincing are the chronological ones, that give the timeline of when to expect certain events.
We are looking back approx. 2000 years through modern eyes with understandable scepticism, but an honest analysis of the record has persuaded even die-hard atheists trying to disprove the bible, that their pre-conceived opinions were wrong and they became believers.
If you are sincere in your desire to prove or disprove the truth of the bible, check out the books by Josh McDowell called Evidence that Demands a Verdict". These are university level books from a former sceptic.
I hope that helps a bit.
Scott
2007-06-01 20:14:09 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually, the bible is a complete and accurate reference of the time when Jesus was here, but it's not what makes him Lord.
Everything the non-believers try to pose to a believer is lacking one thing . . . the ability to remove the Holy Spirit that is with us always. Until you have surrendered your life to Christ, you can never really know the truth of who He really is.
No one knows the son except the father and no one knows the father except the son. Matthew 11:27
2007-06-01 19:58:11 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The simple answer is that God chose the Jews as His light in the world and that they were to show others that He is the one, true God.
There are two different revelations that Christians are told of within the Bible. The special revelation which is the Bible, and general revelation which is all of creation. Many times within the Bible, it states that all of creation proclaims Him as God and the people will be judged based on how much was revealed to them.
2007-06-01 19:44:33 · answer #4 · answered by bobm709 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
many would find it odd that this apocalypse-related information was not universal.
His "Truth," however, was in his teachings. To do good unto your fellow man. This is taught in the books and teachings of almost all other religions.
Buddhism, Wicca, Hinduism, and almost any other religion you can name have at least some teachings related to that.
BTW: for future reference, refer to the "jewish bible" as the Torah, for that is its name.
2007-06-01 19:45:14 · answer #5 · answered by Ambiguity 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A person's influence could only travel so far in Jesus' time.
Modern Christians are TRYING to inform the world of Christ and his teachings, but we can't do that without being called hateful bigots for some reason.
The only thing odd in your premise is the fact that you're laughing at it.
2007-06-01 19:39:21 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
God chose to give His revelations of Jesus to one culture and one culture only. And a universal truth is a truth applicable to everyone, not one that everyone knows. For example, it is universally true that gravity affects everyone, and this is true even for those who do (or did) not know about gravity.
2007-06-01 19:50:15 · answer #7 · answered by Deof Movestofca 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
maybe the people in those areas didn't want to hear the good news and the jews where the first to hear and begin to understand the word of the one true god. i don't think you will like any christian answer,but to me no it isn't odd and i see nothing wrong in salvation history. god bless.
2007-06-01 19:55:40 · answer #8 · answered by fenian1916 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was Jewish.
God sent Him to His own people, the Jews, first.
Pastor Art
2007-06-01 19:38:47 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 1⤋
They did not know him because they did not seek him!
2007-06-01 19:48:03 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋