Christians claim: "The Scriptures attribute characteristics to him that can be true only of God.?

Question

Jesus is presented as being self-existent (John 1:4; 14:6); omnipresent (Matthew 28:20; 18:20); omniscient (John 4:16; 6:64; Matthew 17:22-27); omnipotent (Revelation 1:8; Luke 4:39-55; 7:14, 15; Matthew 8:26, 27); and possessing eternal life (1 John 5:11, 12, 20; John 1:4)."
Do all the above make sense to make Jesus part of the Godhead?

Answer 1

It is true that these characteristics absolutely belong to God alone. But God can and does impart divine graces to human beings sent to represent Him. The language of the texts referred to indicates that Jesus received these characteristics from God. As a recipient he cannot be God himself for two reasons:
1) It is illogical to think that the giver and the recipient are both God;
2) to become a recipient implies need or dependence on the giver, which characteristic cannot be applied to God.

John 1:4 "In him was life; and the life was the light of men." At this point the gospel is still referring to the Word before the supposed incarnation. It cannot therefore be taken as a direct reference to the person of Jesus. The verse does not state that Jesus possessed life in himself without the intervention of God. No Bible text does.

John 14:6 "I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me." Jesus here claims a monopoly on access to God. This does not suggest that his life is independent of God.

Matthew 28:20. "I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world." This is not in fact a claim of omnipresence. It is a claim of immediate and direct access for believers. The claim is no different than that for the Shi'ite Imam in occultation, and may not be very different than the Jewish claim for Elijah and the Muslim claim for Enoch (Khidr). There is no implication of divinity.

Matthew 18:20. "For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them." This is not omnipresence either. It is in fact even more limited than Matthew 28:20, since there are more conditions: the presence of at least two believers, the purpose of gathering (for worship?), and the invocation of the name of Jesus. There is no implication of divinity.

John 4:16 and 6:64 describe knowledge of people's lives and events past and future which would not normally belong to a human being. Such knowledge would, however, normally be granted to a prophet. If Jesus is given the attributes of a prophet, it does not mean that he is therefore God any more than any of the other prophets with such knowledge is God. Matthew 17:22-27 is also a prophecy of future events. It is not a claim to omniscience. Jesus in fact denies omniscience: "But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only." Matthew 24:36.

Revelation 1:8. "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty." This verse is supposed to attribute omnipotence to Jesus because of the reference to the word "almighty." However, the speaker is not identified as Jesus. It is assumed to be Jesus because it is inferred that Jesus was the origin of the voice speaking the same words in Revelation 1:11. But these words are a quotation from Isaiah 41:4, where they are spoken by God Himself. Revelation 1:8 says these words are spoken by the Lord. The word kyrios in the original Greek sometimes refers to God, sometimes to Christ, and sometimes as a form of polite address to other human beings. At this point it is safe to assume on the basis of the context that the speaker is God Almighty and not Jesus Christ.

Luke 4:39-55. In this story Jesus has power to heal and authority over devils, who bear witness that he is "the Christ, the Son of God." Such power, delegated by God, does not imply omnipotence. It only implies God-given authority.

Luke 7:14, 15. This story shows that Jesus had the power to raise the dead to life. He is not the only prophet mentioned in the Bible with such power from God. Such power does not imply omnipotence. It only implies God-given authority.

Matthew 8:26, 27. This story of power to still the storm, impressive as it is, does not imply that this was anything but power delegated to Jesus from God. There is no intimation of omnipotence. For God to give a man such power is not to make that man into God Himself.

1 John 5:11, 12, 20. This text speaks of no life whatsoever which is not given by God. Life that is given by God, although it be in Christ, does not imply that Jesus possesses eternal life in such a way to make him God. The text does not state or imply this.

Jesus is NOT GOD and all intelligent Minds know that.

Answer 2

Jesus is a part of the Godhead, He is the Son of God. He was brought forth from the Father. Proverbs 8: 22 -

The Godhead and the trinity are NOT the same thing. The Godhead has a supreme head and that is God. You can find the definition in an old dictionary, but you have to go back to around 1919.

Answer 3

Well, if you add in the fact that the Bible comes right out and says that Jesus is God then I would have to say Yes!

John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God...14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Answer 4

Yes, that's why we view God as a Triune God.
Jesus is the Second Person of the Trinity.
(But then, you knew that already, didn't you?)

Answer 5

Jesus is the biggest farce that ever f*cked up mankind.

Answer 6

YES!