At Matt. 24:36, Jesus said: "Concerning that day and hour nobody knows, neither the angels of the heavens nor the Son, but only the Father." It has been said that Jesus did not know the "day and hour" because of his human limitations. If all authority had been given to him in heaven and on earth, what would prevent him from knowng "the day and hour? Matt. 28:18. And if he were fully God, wouldn't that part of him know all things?
2007-05-31 09:40:55 · 14 answers · asked by LineDancer 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
no place. Jesus Christ is the Son of Jehovah God not God himself.
2007-05-31 09:49:09 · answer #1 · answered by lover of Jehovah and Jesus 7 · 3⤊ 2⤋
i never understand the point of these types of questions. they seem hypocritical, as if you have explicit scriptures saying jesus is the archangel michael. not so. well, if we investigate every scripture describing jesus, we find he is man - mark 15:39, acts 2:22, 1 timothy 2:5 son of man - matthew 8:20, mark 9:9, luke 6:5 son of god - matthew 14:33, mark 1:1, john 11:27 god - mark 5:19-20, luke 8:39, john 8:58 note how not a single one says he is mike? now, none of these specify what fraction or percentage each of these is. here would be the closest to what you're looking for - Hebrews 2:17 NIV For this reason he had to be made like them, fully human in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people. Colossians 1:19 For God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him, Colossians 2:9 For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form, hmm. so, according to scripture, jesus is fully human with the fullness of the deity dwelling in him. seems to have answered your question, ay? btw, you didn't use just the bible. in fact, you made statements then added a "proof text". this method is used to make the bible conform to your doctrines, not the other way around. can you see the difference?
2016-05-17 23:08:27 · answer #2 · answered by leandra 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Note that your Matt 24 quote showed Jesus saying that BEFORE the Matt 28 quote, where Jesus spoke AFTER his resurrection. There's your clue. Think about it and follow it up. As a human, Jesus could read the hearts of men. Up until that time in history, only God had that prerogative! Only God can read the hearts of men! (Psalm 7:9 1 Chron 28:9 Rev 2:23)There's another clue for you. Think about it and follow it up.
2007-06-06 04:27:29 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Where in the Bible does it say that the human Jesus was fully man and fully God? >> Nowhere, its not there.
Jesus is the Son of God, and God gave Jesus all the power that Jesus had, Jesus had no power of his own and only did what God wanted him to do.
Only God knows the exact time of the end, and God did not tell Jesus.
,,,,,,,,,,
kay
2007-06-02 13:37:43 · answer #4 · answered by kay 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Think of the things that only God can do.
Like: create the worlds, forgive sin, raise the dead, receive worship.... and there is more:
In scripture... only Jesus did these things that are also only attributed to God Almighty.
Btw, questions that are based on knowledge rather than the lack thereof would be better.
I hope that if you are asking here that you are first going to see for yourself. Otherwise your understanding will decrease not increase.
2007-06-07 12:41:54 · answer #5 · answered by Ear GW 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that's because Jesus is not GOD, he's GOD son,GOD created him first, so Jehovah GOD has not told Jesus, Jesus is not GOD. the trinity is not true its man made the word trinity is not in the bible, you should research the organ of that one it pretty funny. on another note Matt.26:39 read,so if the father and the son were distinct individuals, such a prayer would have been meaningless.Jesus would have been praying to himself, and his will would of necessity have been the father's will.john8:17,18 read,So, Jesus definitely spoke of himself as being separate and distinct from the father.
2007-05-31 11:18:42 · answer #6 · answered by !!@!! 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋
John 1:1 & John 1:14. Taken together and in contect, Jesus Christ was in the beginning with God and was infact God and later became flesh.
2007-06-06 08:26:44 · answer #7 · answered by Yuki 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
All referring to Jesus:
Colossians 1:15
Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
Colossians 2:9
For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and THE WORD WAS GOD.
John 1:14
AND THE WORD WAS MADE FLESH, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
2007-05-31 09:54:38 · answer #8 · answered by Bob L 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Umm, no, it wouldn't have. Just because Jesus is also God, doesn't mean that He knew everything. I believe He has the ability to, but God the Father (think the Trinity here, folks) may have chosen to only know the day and hour. Not something that can be verified, because such things are above our comprehension, but it is still a theory to look into.
2007-05-31 09:47:02 · answer #9 · answered by Justin 3 · 1⤊ 5⤋
Philippians 2:5-8;
5Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6Who, being in very nature God,
did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7but made himself nothing,
taking the very nature of a servant,
being made in human likeness.
8And being found in appearance as a man,
he humbled himself
and became obedient to death—
even death on a cross!
This is one of many.
2007-05-31 09:51:35 · answer #10 · answered by bonsai bobby 7 · 2⤊ 3⤋