"My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me" is not only a declaration of steadfast faith in ultimate deliverance, but also a foretelling of the events that occurred during the Crucifixion.
Or am I just the last lamb to realize the obvious? It's just that I don't remember any sermons making that observation, which seems to make those words maybe the most profound that Christ uttered in his extremity.
2007-05-31 04:36:45 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Yes, he was fulfilling the prophecy. The psalm was pointing forward to the cross -- as the entire OT does.
2007-05-31 04:47:38 · answer #1 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Psalm 22:1 does cross-reference with Mat 27:46 and Mark 15:34
2007-05-31 04:48:22 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Indeed. Psalm 22 is a testament to faith, even while enduring misery and disappointment--and it slips like hand-in-glove into Psalm 23, a resolution to impending death.
Like you, I'm baffled as to why "ordinary" people can make this connection, yet the clergy--even the most insightful and well-educated/intelligent--seems to avoid it. I've never understood what benefits a cynical Messiah can bring to the masses. As a former clergyman in my family once told me, "The truth is most likely known to the 'uninitiated'."
2014-12-24 08:25:09 · answer #3 · answered by Alex 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Psalm 22 doesn't seem like a prophecy to me. It doesn't say that the messiah will be nailed to a cross and will say certain things. It appears more likely that the words and actions described in Psalm 22 were remembered when the Gospels were being written, and included in the story of the crucifixion.
2007-05-31 04:46:54 · answer #4 · answered by Gary 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's easy to write stories in the past/future and write other stories which predict events in the first set of stories. That's how the Star Wars Series worked. Cynical view but accurate.
2007-05-31 04:43:56 · answer #5 · answered by Del Piero 10 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's just another line put in the mouth of Jesus that he never uttered.
Just like the miracle stories that were copied from the Book of Kings, originally attributed to Elijah and Elishah.
2007-05-31 04:41:20 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
He was also fulfilling prophecy........
Good point here. He wrote the Word anyway so.......He would be quoting Himself
2007-05-31 04:41:40 · answer #7 · answered by primoa1970 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
AMEN
2007-05-31 04:42:12 · answer #8 · answered by j.wisdom 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋