2007-05-30 13:07:38 · 18 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It's denying that an adult homosexual relationship is equal in value and/or in a moral sense to a heterosexual relationship, which is wrong (IMO).
2007-05-30 13:11:38 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
No. They have all the rights except marriage which should be between male and female. We should not compromise here.
If the two guys or two gals want to live together as a couple, can't they prepare and use a legal instrument such as a will to protect each ones assets? One that can't be contested by family members.
Why can't the LAWS be changed to include them so that inheritance won't be denied if one dies, or a living will be acceptable so they can pull the plug of their mate, or have hospital visitation rights. The same with filing joint income tax, etc.
What is this getting married all about anyway? I think most Christians have a problem, not with legal protection of rights, but the fact that they want to be accepted as man and wife in a sacred marriage. I think that is where the argument lies.
Is common law marriage acceptable in a homosexual relationship much like a heterosexual one? Maybe that is a better way to do it rather than civil marriage or Church weddings.
They chose to live outside of the box.
2007-05-30 20:43:25 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, to deny gays the right to marry says nothing about their "humanity." Rather, it denies gay people the right to the truth of their own experience -- that their sexual orientation is toward others of their own sex and, perhaps, in that way is different from the majority of other people. It denies that gay people are just like all other people in their desire for love and union with the beloved and for the public recognition of the loving family that gay unions create. It denies to gay people the fundamental civil rights and opportunities that are given to heterosexual persons. It denies that marriage existed in some form before the Hebrews came to be and that marriage in so-called pagan societies existed at the same time as the Hebrews. Marriage is, then, not necessarily a "religious" union. And if it were considered a religious concept, it ought not to be seen as a solely religious concept in a civilization and country where there is no state religion.
2007-05-30 20:29:40 · answer #3 · answered by Sebastian 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is true.
Do Christians not realize that in America making up laws because your religion said so is against the law. Seperation of church and state and freedom of religion people!!! This is a DEMOCRACY, not a THEOCRACY! If Christians want a nation that goes by their laws, they should go make their own country. America has most likely more non Christians than Christians.
2007-05-30 20:15:44 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Humanity is not defined by marital status.
By your argument, we are denying pedophiles their "humanity' by making it illegal to get married to a child.
Are we denying polygamists their humanity by insisting on only one spouse?
Rules are Always aribtrary. There is always someone who will be excluded. It may not be fair, but life seldom is.
2007-05-30 20:17:15 · answer #5 · answered by chocolahoma 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes. That is why Christian churches have been performing gay weddings for most of the past 15 centuries.
Ever hear of Saints Serge and Bacchus? They were a gay couple, married in the church, and martyred together for Christianity. There is a beautiful church named for them in Istanbul.
2007-05-30 20:24:35 · answer #6 · answered by sudonym x 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No - marriage is ordained by God to be between a man and a woman [Genesis 2:21-24..and Matthew 19:4-6]. Homosexual marriage is a perversion of the institution of marriage and an offense to the God who created marriage. God forbids and condemns homosexuality, so He clearly is opposed to homosexual marriage
2007-05-30 20:11:11 · answer #7 · answered by Silver 5 · 5⤊ 2⤋
Let me ask this in another way In roman and other pre-Christian ( and nonJewish) societies Homosexuality was freely practiced, in fact there were temples for it. (they practiced it religiously) yet even at that time there was not homosexual marriage. Why?
2007-06-06 02:47:58 · answer #8 · answered by David F 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It certainly denies them the same legal protections that we give to heterosexuals. It doesn't deny them all human rights, but it does set them up as second-class citizens and I believe that is wrong.
2007-05-30 20:11:18 · answer #9 · answered by Link Correon 4 · 1⤊ 4⤋
I may agree but now that same sex marriages are adopting heterosexual orphans and necessarily abusing them with all the gay bullshit,
that would be a no.
2007-05-30 20:12:44 · answer #10 · answered by WhyNotAskDonnieandMarie 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋