I don't think Mary was telling the whole story either, I bet if Jerry Springer had paternity tests back then the bible would have a whole lot more "I ain't your babys daddy" in it.
2007-05-30 10:39:56 · 13 answers · asked by Joseph T 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Wow one person got my joke, the rest are all seriously debating religion on Yahoo answers.
2007-05-30 15:08:31 · update #1
lmao!
I bet you're right
2007-05-30 10:43:03 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Because the Son existed in the mind of God. That is why John 1:1 says the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The Word is the wisdom and plan of God. That is why he said "let us" and in "the beginning God created the heaven and the earth".
The scripture teaches that Jesus is the only begotten Son of God. And when you are the Creator, you can have as many Sons as you want, Yours truly included.
2007-05-30 17:51:32 · answer #2 · answered by I Wanna Know 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If God is omnipotent, how could he not have a Son? For if God is omnipotent, what is it that he can't do? What is beyond his ability?
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. .. The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth. ... No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father’s side, has made him known." John 1:1-3,14,18
2007-05-30 17:47:38 · answer #3 · answered by Steve Amato 6 · 0⤊ 3⤋
If God can do something such as create a vast universe, life, etc... are you actually implying that it would be difficult for him to visit his creation in a form/manner of his choosing?
Once you allow for the notion of a God that is omnipotent, the incarnation is pretty straightforward...
2007-05-30 17:45:49 · answer #4 · answered by doc in dallas 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The Bible has obviously gone through some revisions through these years, or else it is just one extended metaphor. I think that Jesus was a profit, sent with the intent of warning us what could happen if we sin and showing us we can always be forgiven. He probably wasn't God's literal son...
2007-05-30 17:46:19 · answer #5 · answered by Serenade 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
We as Jews have been trying to figure that out for 2007 years. I thought that you would have the answers?
Furthermore, how could G-d have a child outside of wedlock when adultery and premarital sex were punishable by death. Wouldn't that make G-d a hypocrite to his own rules?
2007-05-30 17:46:17 · answer #6 · answered by Teacher 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Why dont you look up the word omnipotent and see what it means and then you can answer the question for yourself.
2007-05-30 17:46:58 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
God's eternal son is also omnipotent. The Holy Trinity (God) is omnipotent.
2007-05-30 17:43:00 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Why do you ask the question when you refuse to read the Bible for the answer?
2007-05-30 17:44:47 · answer #9 · answered by Paulie D 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Your logic is stunning.
If this is Wednesday how can my name be Fred?
2007-05-30 17:44:50 · answer #10 · answered by wefmeister 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
He can do anything He wants to.
2007-05-30 17:44:24 · answer #11 · answered by zee zee 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋