2007-05-29 05:44:15 · 6 answers · asked by goring 6 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Astronomy & Space
It's a backwards approximation.
2007-05-29 05:48:40 · answer #1 · answered by Gene 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
you have portion of a the terrific option thought here, yet you're using it incorrect. the huge Bang did not take place in some specific spot in pre-contemporary area. It grow to be the beginning up of area. In a feeling, it got here approximately everywhere on the comparable time. The universe inflated like a balloon, cooling off because it did so. even with the shown fact that it had a generally uniform temperature everywhere--there wasn't a warm middle and a cool area. we can nevertheless hit upon the residual warmth from the huge Bang. that's stated as the cosmic microwave background radiation. that's quite plenty the comparable everywhere you look.
2016-12-30 05:58:18 · answer #2 · answered by schattenberg 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do you even understand your own questions? How are you coming up with them? It looks like you're asking questions just for the sake of asking something random. Do you even read the responses?
Pick up a book on the subject, and learn something already.
The temperature of the universe at Planck time is ESTIMATED (not "measured") to be 10^32 K, instead of 10^90 K.
2007-05-29 06:19:59 · answer #3 · answered by tastywheat 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
It's an estimate of the kind of temperature it would take to create a specific environment.
2007-05-29 05:47:52 · answer #4 · answered by skylark455st2 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
There never was a Big bang....except in the mind of evolutionists.
2007-05-29 06:18:07 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
no one that is why it is just a theory and not a theorom
2007-05-29 10:04:09 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋