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The New Encyclopædia Britannica says: “Neither the word Trinity, nor the explicit doctrine as such, appears in the New Testament, nor did Jesus and his followers intend to contradict the Shema in the Old Testament: ‘Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord’ (Deut. 6:4). . . . The doctrine developed gradually over several centuries and through many controversies. . . . By the end of the 4th century . . . the doctrine of the Trinity took substantially the form it has maintained ever since.”—(1976), Micropædia, Vol. X, p. 126.

The New Catholic Encyclopedia states: “The formulation ‘one God in three Persons’ was not solidly established, certainly not fully assimilated into Christian life and its profession of faith, prior to the end of the 4th century. But it is precisely this formulation that has first claim to the title the Trinitarian dogma. Among the Apostolic Fathers, there had been nothing even remotely approaching such a mentality or perspective.”—(1967), Vol. XIV, p. 299.

In The Encyclopedia Americana we read: “Christianity derived from Judaism and Judaism was strictly Unitarian [believing that God is one person]. The road which led from Jerusalem to Nicea was scarcely a straight one. Fourth century Trinitarianism did not reflect accurately early Christian teaching regarding the nature of God; it was, on the contrary, a deviation from this teaching.”—(1956), Vol. XXVII, p. 294L.

According to the Nouveau Dictionnaire Universel, “The Platonic trinity, itself merely a rearrangement of older trinities dating back to earlier peoples, appears to be the rational philosophic trinity of attributes that gave birth to the three hypostases or divine persons taught by the Christian churches. . . . This Greek philosopher’s [Plato, fourth century B.C.E.] conception of the divine trinity . . . can be found in all the ancient [pagan] religions.”—(Paris, 1865-1870), edited by M. Lachâtre, Vol. 2, p. 1467.

John L. McKenzie, S.J., in his Dictionary of the Bible, says: “The trinity of persons within the unity of nature is defined in terms of ‘person’ and ‘nature’ which are G[ree]k philosophical terms; actually the terms do not appear in the Bible. The trinitarian definitions arose as the result of long controversies in which these terms and others such as ‘essence’ and ‘substance’ were erroneously applied to God by some theologians.”—(New York, 1965), p. 899.

2007-05-28 21:13:21 · 9 answers · asked by Mitch R 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

9 answers

Yes, that's pretty much how it happened. About the 3rd-4th century, they had a meeting of the top people to try to bring everyone in under one belief system since it was splintering like crazy. They decided on the trinity idea. I believe the Eastern Orthodox Roman church still goes for the single idea.

2007-05-28 21:20:11 · answer #1 · answered by Tina Goody-Two-Shoes 4 · 1 0

in case you have faith the full Bible then enable's first carry in another declarations approximately Jesus: John a million:a million John 20:28 Acts 20:28 Phili 2:9-11, Heb a million:4 Col a million:15 Titus 2:13 Heb a million:8,9 2 puppy a million:a million a million John 5:20 Rev a million:8 (reference the subsequent 2 verses with this one) Rev 4:8 Rev 11:17 the single element I accept as true with is that this: the daddy is a individual, Jesus is a individual, and the Holy Spirit is a individual. they are actually not basically 3 diverse perspectives of one individual. there is one God and in God there are 3 persons. those persons act in perfect team spirit and have distinctive places of work in the Godhead. God is sovereign, God is likewise obedient, God has an intimate dating with guy (not all adult men, basically His chosen). the daddy is named all authority. The Son is obedient and is given all authority by potential of the daddy, The Holy Spirit brings the believer into the "Father/Son" dating by marriage that's the indwelling presence of the Almighty God.

2016-10-30 01:30:34 · answer #2 · answered by Erika 4 · 0 0

You need to know how a "formula" differs in meaning from merely a belief, confession, or understanding. I can show you many Patristic formulas before the counciliar ones.

Paul cannot be expected, as stupid sects like j.w.s demand, to have explained the TRINITY in his Epistles, for they were addressed to the Hierarchy long before taught WHO GOD is before Baptism, then left locally in charge of others to teach the same to. Would you expect a Bishop today to explain in a Letter to a Priest he has long discussed the TRINITY to WHO and WHAT GOD is as if beginning to tell a little unconfirmed child?

All the original religion passed down from Noah reflected the Knowledge of the TRINITY he brought off the Ark from the drowned world of the first man.

But check these out - even the Old Testament mentions the TRINITY, and every verse of the Bible reflects this Knowledge.

http://groups.yahoo.com/group/catholicdoctrine/message/176

2007-05-28 21:56:58 · answer #3 · answered by Travis J 3 · 1 1

All three, evidently, agree that the term trinity is not in the Bible. When we ask, 'what does trinity mean?' ~ we are likely to get the feeling, it means "Three Gods".

However, this is not an acute and accurate description of what is revealed in scriptures. In the Bible we don't see three Gods ~ however, we do see three personalities sharing the same tributes or characters (exactly the same!!). Yet, that does not mean we have three Gods. So there is no contradiction in scripture. The contradiction is in the minds of people who don't understand what is written therein.

2007-05-28 21:53:04 · answer #4 · answered by RealArsenalFan 4 · 0 1

Don't believe everything you read. You can, however believe the Bible. 2 Cor. 13:14 "The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion of the Holy Spirit be with you all, Amen."

2007-05-28 21:26:00 · answer #5 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 0 1

you r right man

at that old time people wanted more than one god so the christian invented the 3 in one god
that is all

2007-05-28 21:40:54 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Prepare yourself to receive the quote of John 1:1
what they don´t know that in the original scriptures the word "god" written two times in different ways meaning different things thanks to internet that you just have to look for Emphatic Diaglott and see the verse in greek written in a different way.

2007-05-28 21:17:11 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

What's to explain. It is stated clearly above that they made it up as they went along.

2007-05-28 21:18:56 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Explain them? Okay... they appear to be historically correct. Thanks for sharing. :-)

2007-05-28 21:19:11 · answer #9 · answered by MumOf5 6 · 0 1

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