Jehovah's Witnesses do not regard JESUS as a part of the GODHEAD. I do not think they accept the trinity concept. and I am not sure if the LDS do either..
2007-05-28 20:39:20
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answer #1
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answered by spotlite 5
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Jesus has all the divine attributes, but is NOT identically the father...
A technical study of John 1:1:
Exegetical Insight
The nominative case is the case that the subject is in. When the subject takes an equative verb like “is” (i.e., a verb that equates the subject with something else), then another noun also appears in the nominative case–the predicate nominative. In the sentence, “John is a man,” “John” is the subject and “man” is the predicate nominative. In English the subject and predicate nominative are distinguished by word order (the subject comes first). Not so in Greek. Since word order in Greek is quite flexible and is used for emphasis rather than for strict grammatical function, other means are used to determine subject from predicate nominative. For example, if one of the two nouns has the definite article, it is the subject.
As we have said, word order is employed especially for the sake of emphasis. Generally speaking, when a word is thrown to the front of the clause it is done so for emphasis. When a predicate nominative is thrown in front of the verb, by virtue of word order it takes on emphasis. A good illustration of this is John 1:1c. The English versions typically have, “and the Word was God.” But in Greek, the word order has been reversed. It reads, kai theos en ho logos = "and God was the Word."
We know that “the Word” is the subject because it has the definite article, and we translate it accordingly: “and the Word was God.” Two questions, both of theological import, should come to mind: (1) why was theos (God) thrown forward? and (2) why does it lack the article? In brief, its emphatic position stresses its essence or quality: “What God was, the Word was” is how one translation brings out this force. Its lack of a definite article keeps us from identifying the person of the Word (Jesus Christ) with the person of “God” (the Father). That is to say, the word order tells us that Jesus Christ has all the divine attributes that the Father has; lack of the article tells us that Jesus Christ is not the Father. John’s wording here is beautifully compact! It is, in fact, one of the most elegantly terse theological statements one could ever find. As Martin Luther said, the lack of an article is against Sabellianism; the word order is against Arianism.
To state this another way, look at how the different Greek constructions would be rendered:
kai ho logos en ho theos = “and the Word was the God” (i.e., the Father; Sabellianism)
kai ho logo en theos = “and the Word was a god” (Arianism)
kai theos en ho logos = “and the Word was God” (Orthodoxy).
Jesus Christ is God and has all the attributes that the Father has. But he is not the first person of the Trinity. All this is concisely affirmed in kai theos en ho logos.
Daniel B. Wallace (a Dallas Theological Seminary instructor)
... To believe EITHER:
Jesus is identically the father
or
Jesus is simply "a god" and lacks equality with the father
is to pervert the true reading of scripture. The presentation here is rather complicated, but I included it directly to more fully demonstrate the meaning of John's prologue. It can be summed up simply by saying that Jesus and the father are "different but equal." They are NOT the same person, but share common essence. Each has their own function within the whole.
2007-05-29 03:31:02
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Islam is the theist religion that preaches the ideology of a Jesus who is a prophet and not a god . I for one think this is only a step in the right direction but prefer the ideas of Confucius and Buddha who spoke the some ideas long before Jesus was even born and without a deity.
2007-05-29 03:32:16
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answer #3
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answered by dogpatch USA 7
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All Christians know Jesus is The Son of God.
2007-05-29 03:28:28
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answer #4
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answered by gwhiz1052 7
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Jehovah's Witnesses don't.
I don't know whether it matters, but I definitely don't believe in using the Trinity as an extra-biblical justification for Greek philosophies and building works in the tradition of the Babylonians and Egyptians.
2007-05-29 03:46:05
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answer #5
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answered by MiD 4
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The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints believes that.
This church is pretty clear in stating that Jesus is not God incarnate, but a separate person and the servant of God Almighty.
Almighty God is the Father of us all.
2007-05-29 03:45:03
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answer #6
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answered by MumOf5 6
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He is the son of God, the Almighty. He didn't come to take over God's job... just to serve as a representative and do some field work.
2007-05-29 03:29:35
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answer #7
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answered by red_texasgirl 4
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A contradiction. An oxymoron. How can a Christian religion not believe in Christ?
2007-05-29 03:58:51
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answer #8
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answered by roche_leonor 5
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it's the movement Christ started and recorded in the Bible!
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I Corinthians 11:3 But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God.
I Peter 3: 22 . . . Jesus Christ. 22Who is on the right hand of God, swallowing down death, that we might be made heirs of life everlasting: being gone into heaven, the angels and powers and virtues being made subject to him.
I Corinthians 8:6 Yet to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we unto him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
Isaiah 42:8 I am Jehovah, that is my name; and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise unto graven images. (ASV)
Isaiah 44:8 Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have I not declared unto thee of old, and showed it? and ye are my witnesses. Is there a God besides me? yea, there is no Rock; I know not any. (ASV)
Isaiah 44:6 Jehovah of hosts: I am the first, and I am the last; and besides me there is no God. (ASV)
John 14:6 Jesus saith to him: I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No man cometh to the Father, but by me. (DRC)
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See the subjects on the trinity here: http://bythebible.page.tl/
subjects:
God ; Trinity: Athanasian Creed ; John 1:1
Christ relative Jehovah Simply bythebible – Just scriptures
Jesus Christ His pre-human Existence
Link to: Christ relative Jehovah
http://bythebible.page.tl/Christ-Relative-God.htm
2007-05-29 03:43:46
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answer #9
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answered by Fuzzy 7
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Jehovah's Witnesses, which I am one of them.
The Scriptures make it clear that Jesus was entirely human from his birth until his death. John did not say that the Word was merely clothed with flesh. He “became flesh” and was not part flesh and part God. If Jesus had been human and divine at the same time, it could not have been said that he had been “made a little lower than angels.” Hebrews 2:9; Psalm 8:4, 5.
If Jesus had been both God and man when on the earth, why did he repeatedly pray to Jehovah? Paul wrote: “In the days of his flesh Christ offered up supplications and also petitions to the One who was able to save him out of death, with strong outcries and tears, and he was favorably heard for his godly fear.” Hebrews 5:7.
That Jesus was not partly a spirit when on the earth is proved by Peter’s statement that Christ was “put to death in the flesh, but, made alive in the spirit.” (1 Peter 3:18) Only because Jesus was wholly human could he have experienced what imperfect people experience and thus become a sympathetic high priest. Wrote Paul: “We have as high priest, not one who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who has been tested in all respects like ourselves, but without sin.”, Hebrews 4:15.
As “the Lamb of God that takes away the sin of the world,” Jesus “gave himself a corresponding ransom for all.” (John 1:29; 1 Timothy 2:6) In that way, Jesus bought back exactly what Adam had lost, perfect, eternal human life. Since God’s justice required ‘soul for soul,’ Jesus thus had to be what Adam was originally, a perfect human, not a God-man.
That prayer and even its introduction in themselves show the very close relationship that Jesus himself enjoyed with his Father. He had been speaking to his disciples, looking at them as he talked; then he needed only to ‘raise his eyes to heaven’ and continue talking, but now speaking to his Father.
It was as simple as that.On the basis of such a relationship to God Jesus addressed himself to God as a son and prayed: “Father, the hour has come; glorify your son, that your son may glorify you, according as you have given him authority over all flesh, that, as regards the whole number whom you have given him, he may give them everlasting life. This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ.” (John 17:1-3) Thus Jesus did not claim to be “the only true God.”
Notice that Jesus prays to One whom he calls “the only true God.” He points to God’s superior position when he continues: “So now you, Father, glorify me alongside yourself with the glory that I had alongside you before the world was.” (John 17:5) Since Jesus prayed to God requesting to be alongside God, how could Jesus at the same time be “the only true God”? Let us examine this matter.
Does the Bible agree with those who teach that the Father and the Son are not separate and distinct individuals? No it does not.
Matt. 26:39, RS: “Going a little farther he [Jesus Christ] fell on his face and prayed, ‘My Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me; nevertheless, not as I will, but as thou wilt.’” (If the Father and the Son were not distinct individuals, such a prayer would have been meaningless. Jesus would have been praying to himself, and his will would of necessity have been the Father’s will.)
Though he invariably found himself busy from morning to night, he set aside time to talk to his heavenly Father. Sometimes, Jesus got up “early in the morning, while it was still dark,” in order to pray. (Mark 1:35) On other occasions, he retired to a lonely place at the end of the day in order to talk to Jehovah, his Father.
2007-05-29 03:51:25
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answer #10
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answered by BJ 7
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