In Matthew 28:10,16 the disciples are told to go to Galilee and see Jesus there. In Luke 24 they see Jesus in Jerusalem and the vicinity, and are told to stay in the city (v.49). Which one do you think is correct, and why?
Feel free to say "both", if you believe in square circles.
2007-05-27 14:10:27 · 7 answers · asked by jamesfrankmcgrath 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Both or neither.
Isn't Biblical errancy fun?
EDIT
CHRIST4ME. Bible errancy is a huge field, and literally hundreds of books have been written about the thousands of errors, contradictions and inaccuracies. This says nothing at all about the translation differences, estimated to be between 200,000 to 400,000 among the various extant versions of the Bible.
I'd be happy to send you some links or the names of several books you could read to educate yourself on this topic. It is you who shows your ignorance.
2007-05-27 14:14:11 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Before the resurrection they were told that they would go to Galilee, and that they would see Him there. It was as much a prediction as an order. At some point during the 40 days between His resurrection and His ascension they were told to wait in Jerusalem until they received the Holy Spirit. Was the directive to wait in Jerusalem given after they had already seen Him in Galilee? That seems most probable, but it is not made clear by Luke at all. An inconsistency? An error? An indication there was no resurrection? #1 and #2 MAY be (though not necessarily) #3 is a countless deduction.
2015-03-20 18:41:53 · answer #2 · answered by dp 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was crucified and died around Passover. This happened on August 17, 1 BC according to the Holy Spirit we (plural) talk to. He resurrected three days later on August 20, completing three days and three nights in the tomb. It was at resurrection that Jesus gave the instruction to the disciples to go to Galilee (Matthew 28:9-10). Why Galilee? Because His disciples were Galileans. Galilee is about 100 km north of Jerusalem or about 2-1/2 to 3 days walk. Remember that Jesus were with His disciples for 40 more days after resurrection.
Matthew 28:16 states "Then the eleven disciples went away into Galilee, into a mountain where Jesus had appointed them." This event must have happened within the 40-day period. John chapter 21 states the disciples in the Sea of Tiberias (John 6:1, 21:1) or Sea of Galilee or Lake of Gennesaret (Luke 5:1).
Why did the disciples have to go back to Jerusalem? Didn't the ascension happen at Jerusalem? And this ascension happened 40 days after the resurrection? The 40th day was September 29 when Jesus ascended to Heaven. He instructed His disciples to remain in the city and wait for the gift of the Holy Spirit. The ascension happened at Mount Olivet, a Sabbath's walk from Jerusalem.
The reason why the disciples went back to Jerusalem was to attend the Feast of Tabernacles that happened on September 30, 1 BC. This is one of the three feasts that is required of men of the Jewish faith to go to Jerusalem. (The feasts are Passover or Pesach, Feast of Tabernacles or Sukkoth, and Harvest Festival or Shavuot.) It was on this date when there were many pilgrims from different parts of the world in Jerusalem. This is the feast when the gift from the Holy Spirit was given to the disciples. This is the feast when they were able to speak in tongues.
So both Matthew 28:10,16 and Luke 24:49 are correct. The details of this crucifixion, resurrection and ascension of Jesus are in the study that I made from 1999 to 2003 based on the revelation date of August 17, 1 BC of the Holy Spirit. The crucifixion date is correct and the results of the study can be found in the website below.
2007-05-28 02:39:40 · answer #3 · answered by Peace Crusader 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"Biblical errancy"? How ignorant.
In Matthew, when Jesus first saw some of His disciples after the resurrection, He told them to go to Galilee, and there they would see Him.
He appeared many times over a forty day period to His disciples. As the last verse of the last chapter of the Gospel of John says, "And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that should be written." ( John 21:25 )
These things spoken of here are things that Jesus did after the resurrection.
Just before His ascension into heaven, (forty days after He told them to see Him in Galilee) He instructed them to tarry in Jerusalem until His Father's promise was fulfilled, and they were endued with power by the filling of the Holy Ghost in order to be able to spread the Gospel with power and authority, preaching and healing in the name of Jesus.
May God forgive you for your doubt and sarcastic remarks concerning holy things which you know little about.
2007-05-27 14:42:01 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Which disciples do you think that he was talking to in those two different verses? Do you think that all the disciples were somehow glued together like a broken pot? What's wrong with you?
2007-05-27 14:15:05 · answer #5 · answered by Christian Sinner 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
well there was 7 weeks from Jesus Resurrection and Pentecostal. so why could not both happened ?
2007-05-27 14:16:04 · answer #6 · answered by rap1361 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
So...we understand that the bible is just stories right?
2007-05-27 14:14:20 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋