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2007-05-27 03:29:36 · 19 answers · asked by ☻☻☻☻☻☻☻☻☻☻☻☻☻☻☻☻☻☻☻ 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

19 answers

Yes it was mistranslated from the word 'Almah' meaning young woman. There's still lots of people that believe she had an immaculate conception. Here's a link for lil missy:
http://www.2think.org/hii/virgin.shtml

2007-05-27 03:38:13 · answer #1 · answered by Spookshow Baby 3 · 0 1

People may call it a mistranslation. People can call it whatever they want. What people think is less of an interest of mine than what God thinks. God says, via the Scriptures, that Mary is Ever Virgin:

Mary is Ever Virgin
Exodus 13:2,12 - Jesus is sometimes referred to as the "first-born" son of Mary. But "first-born" is a common Jewish expression meaning the first child to open the womb. It has nothing to do the mother having future children.

Exodus 34:20 - under the Mosaic law, the "first-born" son had to be sanctified. "First-born" status does not require a "second" born.

Ezek. 44:2 - Ezekiel prophesies that no man shall pass through the gate by which the Lord entered the world. This is a prophecy of Mary's perpetual virginity. Mary remained a virgin before, during and after the birth of Jesus.

Mark 6:3 - Jesus was always referred to as "the" son of Mary, not "a" son of Mary. Also "brothers" could have theoretically been Joseph's children from a former marriage that was dissolved by death. However, it is most likely, perhaps most certainly, that Joseph was a virgin, just as were Jesus and Mary. As such, they embodied the true Holy Family, fully consecrated to God.

Luke 1:31,34 - the angel tells Mary that you "will" conceive (using the future tense). Mary responds by saying, "How shall this be?" Mary's response demonstrates that she had taken a vow of lifelong virginity by having no intention to have relations with a man. If Mary did not take such a vow of lifelong virginity, her question would make no sense at all (for we can assume she knew how a child is conceived). She was a consecrated Temple virgin as was an acceptable custom of the times.

Luke 2:41-51 - in searching for Jesus and finding Him in the temple, there is never any mention of other siblings.

John 7:3-4; Mark 3:21 - we see that younger "brothers" were advising Jesus. But this would have been extremely disrespectful for devout Jews if these were Jesus' biological brothers.

John 19:26-27 - it would have been unthinkable for Jesus to commit the care of his mother to a friend if he had brothers.

John 19:25 - the following verses prove that James and Joseph are Jesus' cousins and not his brothers: Mary the wife of Clopas is the sister of the Virgin Mary.

Matt. 27:61, 28:1 - Matthew even refers to Mary the wife of Clopas as "the other Mary."

Matt. 27:56; Mark 15:47 - Mary the wife of Clopas is the mother of James and Joseph.

Mark 6:3 - James and Joseph are called the "brothers" of Jesus. So James and Joseph are Jesus' cousins.

Matt. 10:3 - James is also called the son of "Alpheus." This does not disprove that James is the son of Clopas. The name Alpheus may be Aramaic for Clopas, or James took a Greek name like Saul (Paul), or Mary remarried a man named Alpheus.


There are passages of Matthew and Romans that are popularly misunderstood to indicate Mary was not a Virgin:

Misunderstanding about Matthew 1:25 (Joseph knew her "not until")
Matt. 1:25 - this verse says Joseph knew her "not until ("heos", in Greek)" she bore a son. Some Protestants argue that this proves Joseph had relations with Mary after she bore a son. This is an erroneous reading of the text because "not until" does not mean "did not...until after." "Heos" references the past, never the future. Instead, "not until" she bore a son means "not up to the point that" she bore a son. This confirms that Mary was a virgin when she bore Jesus. Here are other texts that prove "not until" means "not up to the point that":

Matt. 28:29 - I am with you "until the end of the world." This does not mean Jesus is not with us after the end of the world.

Luke 1:80 - John was in the desert "up to the point of his manifestation to Israel." Not John "was in the desert until after" his manifestation.

Luke 2:37 - Anna was a widow "up to the point that" she was eighty-four years old. She was not a widow after eighty-four years old.

Luke 20:43 - Jesus says, "take your seat at my hand until I have made your enemies your footstool." Jesus is not going to require the apostles to sit at His left hand after their enemies are their footstool.

1 Tim. 4:13 - "up to the point that I come," attend to teaching and preaching. It does not mean do nothing "until after" I come.

Gen. 8:7 - the raven flew back and forth "up to the point that" [until] the waters dried from the earth. The raven did not start flying after the waters dried.

Gen. 28:15 - the Lord won't leave Jacob "up to the point that" he does His promise. This does not mean the Lord will leave Jacob afterward.

Deut. 34:6 - but "up to the point of today" no one knows Moses' burial place. This does not mean that "they did not know place until today."

2 Sam. 6:23 - Saul's daughter Micah was childless "up to the point" [until] her death. She was not with child after her death.

1 Macc. 5:54 - not one was slain "up to the point that" they returned in peace. They were not slain after they returned in peace.

2007-05-28 09:46:48 · answer #2 · answered by Daver 7 · 0 0

I think Mary could have been literally a virgin. There was a "virgin" shark birth this week. See link. Could this also happen in humans? I'm not a scientist, but it's interesting. For humans, I think you need to have faith as we will not truly know truth until our time here on earth is over.

Peace, Love, and Blessings
Greenwood

2007-05-27 10:40:40 · answer #3 · answered by Greenwood 5 · 1 0

I haven't heard this before. Would you like to explain more?

Okay I read the link. It is written by an atheist, so of course it will be contrary.
The whole point is that Mary was a virgin, although betrothed to Joseph, she had no known a man. She was pregnant by the Holy Spirit.
If, as atheists often do, going around after their tails, they don't believe Jesus existed, what on earth is the point of this little bit of nonsense?

2007-05-27 10:35:01 · answer #4 · answered by True Blue Brit 7 · 1 0

I believe the only correct interpretation of Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew 1:18 is that Mary, mother of Jesus Christ, was a virgin at the time of Jesus' birth.

2007-05-27 10:42:52 · answer #5 · answered by Brian 5 · 1 1

Virgin in the Bible means sinless - get rid of all your mistranslations and be repentent or be thrown in the lake of fire (Revelations 21:8).

2007-05-27 10:36:12 · answer #6 · answered by Charles H 3 · 1 0

Ofcourse she was a virgin. The virgin birth was even in prophecy before it happened. See Isaiah 7:14

Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

Was that a mistranslation too?

2007-05-27 10:36:55 · answer #7 · answered by ignoramus_the_great 7 · 0 2

Catholics ARE Christians.

2007-05-27 10:33:22 · answer #8 · answered by Elana 7 · 3 1

Being a woman that had several children, I never did believe that Mary concieved without the help of an earthly man, unless Jesus body was only firing on 23 chromosomes.

2007-05-27 10:40:54 · answer #9 · answered by Lukusmcain// 7 · 1 1

It's known through Scripture that she was a virgin Those "many people" whom you allege say it's a "mistranslation" are simply ignorant on the subject

2007-05-27 10:34:42 · answer #10 · answered by †Lawrence R† 6 · 0 2

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