Mary was brought up in what might be similar to a convent of today. She was a Virgin, but much more than that, she had an on-going relationship with God the Father;
The Father saw her as a rightious woman.
Her stedfast faith in the Father cleansed any sin she did have: to be more concise:
she was a very good young woman, so much in fact, that she was chosen to be the Mother of Christ. Something you are missing here is the fact that God the Father cleansed all of her sin to make her worthy to bare Jesus; we all have sin, so of course that cleansing was necessary even though she was a good woman.
2007-05-26 05:50:08
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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The fact she was a virgin, just as prophecied in the Old Testament, meant that she had not had sex before marriage. This was usually the case among young women of the time, considering that being stoned to death was the alternative. "Free of sin" means exactly that. Mary had never committed a sin of any kind, not just sexual sin, and was free of the effects of original sin from the moment of her own conception.
2007-05-26 06:26:33
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answer #2
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answered by PaulCyp 7
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Nobody actually says that in the Bible account (Luke 1.26ff).
The same account does, however, say that she had not yet had sexual intercourse (as does Mathew 1.18-25).
There is a longstanding Christian tradition (chiefly found in the Roman Catholic and Eastern Orthodox churches, although some Protestants believe it as well) that Mary was impeccable (free from sin) not only before she concieved Jesus, but also afterwards.
The Roman Catholic church furthermore teaches on the authority of Pope Pius IX (who said so in 1854) that Mary was concieved without original sin (this is called the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception), and he is the one who said Mary was "preserved free from all stain of original sin" which might be what you are thinking of.
2007-05-26 06:06:51
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answer #3
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answered by Isaac 2
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Nowhere in the Bible does it say Mary was without sin. God chose her because she was a young girl who believed in God- and lived a life of devotion to Him. Can you tell me where in the Bible you got this info, would love to know.
For the person that said, Mary was the only one born without original sin- where is that is scripture- you cannot find it, because it just isn't there.
2007-05-26 06:08:10
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answer #4
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answered by AdoreHim 7
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A claim that is often made is concerning Isaiah 7:14. In the Book of Isaiah in the Old Testament of the Bible it states:
Therefore, the Lord himself will give you a sign, behold a young woman (almah) will conceive and bear a child and shall call his name Immanuel."
It is claimed that the above was a prophecy about the birth of Jesus to the Virgin Mary. It is further claimed that since the word Immanuel means "God with us," the person being talked about, i.e. Jesus was God.
The above quotation is from the King James Version of the Bible. The word translated as "virgin" is the wrong translation of the Hebrew word ALMAH. The word ALMAH in Hebrew means "young woman." The correct Hebrew word for virgin is BETHULAH. Since many young women begot children since those words were penned, it is not at all necessary that those words should apply to Jesus.
Another fact that is often ignored is that Jesus was never named Immanuel, nor did anyone ever address him as Immanuel when he lived. On the contrary, the Messiah was named Jesus (Luke 2:21) by the angel according to the gospels.
In the West there are four defined teachings regarding the Blessed Virgin. Two were defined by the undivided catholic church, and two by the Roman church alone. These teachings are often labelled as the 'four marian dogmas'. They have been dogmatized in that they have been declared by the Roman church as authoritative and infallible teachings to which all the faithful must ascribe.
The four Marian dogmas are: Mary Mother of God, declared by the Third Ecumenical Council at Ephesus in 431; Mary Ever-Virgin, declared at the Fifth Ecumenical Council in Constantinople in 553; Mary's Immaculate Conception, declared by Pope Pius IX in 1854; and the Bodily Assumption of Mary, declared by Pope Pius XII in 1950.
2007-05-26 05:47:09
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answer #5
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answered by Gorgeoustxwoman2013 7
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Nowhere in the Bible does it say that Mary was free from sin.
2007-05-26 05:56:06
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answer #6
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answered by Cee T 6
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There is no scriptural basis to believe that Mary was not a sinner like everyone else. She was pure before God in that she loved and served Him, but she was not free from sin.
Only one sinless person ever lived and it was Jesus!
EDIT: OF COURSE YOU CAN CHOOSE TO BELIEVE A LIE IF YOU WISH, BUT SINCE MARY WAS AROUND BEFORE JESUS AND GOD NEEDED A SINLESS SACRIFICE FOR THE SOULS OF ME THEN IT WOULD MAKE SENSE THAT MARY SHOULD DIE FOR THE SINS OF THE WORLD AND NOT CHRIST. The fact that she did not die for the sins of man proves her imperfection.
2007-05-26 05:45:39
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Sex is a sin for christians
2007-05-26 05:59:01
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answer #8
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answered by brainstorm 7
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What's really confusing is that I was told Jesus was the only person who ever lived who was free from sin, that it wasn't possible with other people.
2007-05-26 05:44:55
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Catholic doctrine teaches that Mary was conceived without original sin on her soul, whatever that means. It has nothing to do with her "virginity" (actually a mistranslation anyway)
As far as I know there's no scriptural basis for that belief.
2007-05-26 05:48:58
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answer #10
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answered by Mom 4
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