2007-05-25 07:36:54 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
then Jesus must have been she.
Parthogenesis in humans could only result in the birth of a female.
2007-05-25 07:44:00 · answer #1 · answered by convictedidiot 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Are you just excited to use the this word finally. Well, parthenogenic is by natural means, and occurs by nature. It wouldn't be by God then, thus producing another sinful man and not a sinless man. So if parthenogenic was true, which i don't think has happened in human beings as far as we know, Jesus wouldn't be sinless, because he would have been a human, not God.
2007-05-25 14:42:25 · answer #2 · answered by yaabro 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No but we are considering replacing you.
2007-05-25 14:43:22 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Whoa... you realize what this means, right? Jesus didn't have disciples, she had a beefcake harem.
2007-05-25 14:39:46 · answer #4 · answered by Doc Occam 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. It is better to leave it the way God intended.
~Neeva
2007-05-25 14:40:09 · answer #5 · answered by Neeva C 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋