2007-05-24 15:41:44 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Immigration
That's the same question I keep asking myself. All those settler's sons shouldn't be American, only Native Americans should be considered citizens.
2007-05-24 15:45:34 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution
It was proposed on June 13, 1866, and ratified on July 9, 1868.
2007-05-24 22:45:08 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
The 14th amendment was written in 1866 to give slaves citizenship. Some how it gradually let other people from other nations become citizens. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/fourteenth
2007-05-24 22:51:30 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The 14th amendment to the constitution.
2007-05-24 22:45:09 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
1965, actually. The original intent of the 14th amendment was NOT for people of other countries but for American Indians, who are under the jurisdiction of their tribes, but also Americans.
2007-05-24 22:56:07 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
With the passage of the Fourteenth Amendment.
2007-05-24 22:45:58 · answer #6 · answered by TheOnlyBeldin 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
After the american civil war, this law was created by the North to try to get more free blacks to become citizens, and therfore voters who would support their "liberators," the North.
2007-05-24 22:45:15 · answer #7 · answered by savage708 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
A supreme court decision in the 1890's.
2007-05-24 22:46:42 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The 14th Amm....
BUT it's original intention was to ensure that slaves were made to be citizens...NOT fence jumpers.
2007-05-24 22:48:50 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
I'm not positive when that happened, but it was intended to swell the country's population.
It has long since outlived its usefulness.
2007-05-24 22:44:43 · answer #10 · answered by goldspider79 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋