is there a differance between this bible verse?
Romans 3:10.
There is none Rightous, NO. NOT ONE.
or this way
no one can be rightous, no one can.
is there a differance or are they both the same?
2007-05-24 15:25:18 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I believe there is a difference.Jesus was rightous and he was born of woman.He was flesh.There is none rightous means that there wasn`t any one that was rightous Not one person .So there is a possibilty to be rightous but there wasn`t any that was found.
2007-05-24 15:39:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
In the Greek it literally says, "as it has been written: there is not a righteous [man] not one, there is not the [one] understanding, there is not the [one] seeking GOD." It goes on to say literally, as per the Greek, "all turned away, together became unpofitable; there is not the [one] doing kindness, there is not so much as one."
It is a generalization about a particular generation, and says that the reason there is none righteous is because of no longer being righteous, by departing from righteousness. It never says anyone cannot be righteous, but that all who chose to cease with righteousness are now unprofitable.
2007-05-24 22:42:24 · answer #2 · answered by Travis J 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The first is referring to the time before Christ died for our sins. the second is not in the bible. When we believe on Christ and the atonement we objectively become righteous. I also believe that we become new creatures that do not have to sin any longer because we are born of the Holy Spirit. The two statements are not the same.
2007-05-24 22:46:27 · answer #3 · answered by expertless 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Paul the Apostle is addressing the human nature in ALL of us.
When you read this chapter and beyond, Paul is summing up the true state of human beings, as God sees it. Only God is "Righteous" - people in his or her human state can't possibly attain to Holiness. Only God can sanctify (place him or her apart for a Holy purpose), an individual. Christians are counted AS righteous before God because of their acceptance of the sacrifice of Jesus Christ, which allows them to be under GRACE.
2007-05-24 22:36:22 · answer #4 · answered by guraqt2me 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It means you can't be justified by deeds. Deeds can't make a person righteous in the eyes of God . You need to read a little further down to distill this passage's contextual meaning.
2007-05-24 22:31:46 · answer #5 · answered by Dirk Johnson 5 · 3⤊ 1⤋
they are different. In the second one you put the word can which means able. We are able through Jesus. The first one is correct.
2007-05-24 22:35:19 · answer #6 · answered by Chloe 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Its speaking of Man
2007-05-24 22:30:06 · answer #7 · answered by Terry S 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
the first one means... I think... there is not one righteous person
the 2nd one means, probably, that no one can become righteous.
2007-05-24 22:41:19 · answer #8 · answered by SF azn 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
PLZ continue the scriptures in them you will find your answer
2007-05-24 22:33:07 · answer #9 · answered by ✞ Ephesians 2:8 ✞ 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No one is perfect or sinless. We all fall short.
2007-05-24 22:33:38 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋